Concept Comprehension Quizzes for PPG1007 Strategic Implementation

… an Atlas quiz for Toronto PPG1007 Strategic Implementation

Purpose and coverage

This page provides concept comprehension questions in for 120 concepts listed in Top 120 + 80 Concepts for PPG1007, which are organized in groups of 10 for each week of study in Toronto PPG1007 Putting Policy into Action – Strategic Implementation of Public Objectives.

The table below provides links to individual quizzes.

Below the table all 120 questions from the 12 quizzes are listed on the remainder of this (long) page.

Links to weekly quizzes
Quiz 1007.01 – The Study of Policy Analysis and Implementation

Quiz 1007.02 – Strategic Management in the Public Sector

Quiz 1007.03 – Writing and Teamwork

Quiz 1007.04 – Legitimacy, Support, and Risk

Quiz 1007.05 – Interests, Stakeholders, and Perspectives on Change

Quiz 1007.06 – Designing the Delivery Model and Improving Performance

Quiz 1007.07 – Performance Measurement, Accountability, and Good Governance

Quiz 1007.08 – Communications Planning

Quiz 1007.09 – Advising Elected Officials

Quiz 1007.10 – Presenting and Speaking

Quiz 1007.11 – Leadership

Quiz 1007.12 – Operating Skills for Internship

All quiz questions

Quiz for Week 1 – The Study of Policy Analysis and Implementation

CCQ1007.01.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public policy can be defined as a course of action or inaction chosen by public authorities to address a given problem or interrelated set of problems.

b. Public policy can be defined as systematically using the state to affect peoples’ lives.

c. Public policy can be generally defined as a system of laws, regulatory measures, courses of action, and funding priorities concerning a given topic promulgated by a governmental entity or its representatives.

d. Successful public policy depends on the development and use of a sound evidence base; the understanding and managing the political context; and planning from the outset for how the policy will be delivered.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term trade-off choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. When choices are made (collectively or by an individual) to accept having less of one thing in order to get more of something else, the results are called trade-offs.

b. A student faced with the choice of spending Saturday studying for a Microeconomics exam or hiking in Toronto’s ravines makes a trade-off of hiking time for study time in deciding how many hours to study and how many to spend hiking.

c. Evaluating trade-offs, when done carefully and systematically, involves comparing the costs and benefits of each of the available alternatives with each other.

d. The concept of trade-offs are generally applied to consumer choices and not to choices made by producers.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term opportunity cost choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Opportunity cost as the cost of an alternative that must be foregone in order to pursue a certain action.

b. Opportunity cost is the value of the next highest use.

c. The opportunity cost of earning an MPP degree includes the cost of room and board while attending university.

d. The opportunity cost of something includes not only the money spent in buying (or doing) the something, but also the economic benefits that you did without because you bought (or did) that particular something and thus can no longer buy (or do) something else.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to principal-agent problem choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The principal-agent problem is what develops when a principal creates an environment in which an agent’s incentives don’t align with its own.

b. Much of the principal-agent problem has to do with information asymmetry and incentives.

c. The onus is on the agent to create incentives for the principal to ensure they act as the agent wants.

d. An example of the principle-agent problem is when the agent knows more than the typical principle, and the agent has the ability to charge at their own discretion.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public choice theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public choice transfers the rational actor model of economic theory to the realm of politics.

b. Public choice theory tries to determine the behavioural choice of the public if the public behaved as a rational actor.

c. Public choice, like the economic model of rational behavior on which it rests, assumes that people are guided chiefly by their own self-interests.

d. Public choice theory is the application of the theories and methods of economics to the analysis of political behavior.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Allison’s three models of government action choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1969 article, Conceptual models and the Cuban Missile Crisis, Graham Allison set out three models or lenses for analyzing government action.

b. Model 1 suggests that the state acts as a unitary rational actor to make decisions.

c. Model 2 suggests that the sub-units of the state act according to pre-determined procedures to produce an output and the government can only dictate policy options that are already in the standard operating procedures.

d. Model 3 suggests that those in charge of various state responsibilities make predictable arguments based on their present position with policy outcomes being the result of negotiations among these leaders.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Downs’ typology of officials choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1964 article, Inside Bureaucracy, Anthony Downs sets out five types of government officials.

b. Downs’ five types of government officials include climbers, conservers, and advocates.

c. Downs’ five types of government officials include zealots and statesmen.

d. Downs suggested three key determinants of an official’s type: psychological predispositions; the nature of the position occupied by the official; and the probability that an official actually attain the goals associated with the particular type toward which he is psychologically inclined.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pressman and Wildavsky’s implementation model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Pressman-Wildavsky implementation model features a chain of statistically independent nodes or clearance points with an attached probability.

b. The Pressman-Wildavsky model explains why success in well-designed implementation plans is better than 80 percent.

c. The Pressman-Wildavsky model suggests that if the probability of agreement is 80 percent at each of 30 decision points involving a total of 70 clearances, then the chances of completion are one in a million.

d. Critics of the Pressman-Wildavsky model point out that clearance points are not always independent and might be packaged or bundled in ways so that one clearance ripples through several others.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Bardach’s implementation game choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bardach uses the notion of games as a way of understanding the essentially defensive nature of implementation.

b. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that rely on complex management systems, large organizations, and multiple clearances.

c. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that work through the market because the dynamics of the public and private spheres are fundamentally at odds.

d. Bardach’s strategies include engaging in scenario-writing to work out different possible consequences of a string of actions and interactions.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.01.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Bardach’s eightfold path to more effective problem solving choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bardach’s first step is to figure out what your role is in the decision-making structure for the problem at hand.

b. Bardach’s second step is to assemble some evidence recognizing that a substantial portion of the time on a policy analysis is needed for reading documents, hunting in libraries, poring over studies and statistics, interviewing people, traveling to interviews, and waiting for appointments.

c. Bardach’s third step is to construct the alternatives, that is, the “policy options,” or “alternative courses of action,” or “alternative strategies of intervention to solve or mitigate the problem.”

d. Bardach’s seventh step is to “decide!” as a check on how well you have done your work up to this point, because, even though you personally may not be the decision maker, unless you can convince yourself of the plausibility of some course of action, you probably won’t be able to convince your client – and rightly so.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 2 – Strategic Management in the Public Sector

CCQ1007.02.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to strategy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Strategy as a plan of action to achieve a long-term or overall aim.

b. The term strategic has a very specific meaning in the public sector and distinctions between strategy and tactics are unambiguous.

c. A strategy identifies broader goals that advance the overall organization and organize resources whereas tactics utilize specific resources to achieve sub-goals that support the defined mission.

d. A strategy is longer term and changes infrequently while tactics are shorter term and flexible to specific contexts and conditions.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to strategic public management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Strategic public management is a term used by Mark Moore and Herman Leonard to describe the task of public officials in taking account of an organization’s capacity and its political support to determine ways to enhance public value.

b. Strategic public management has almost nothing to learn from frameworks developed for strategic management in the private sector.

c. Leonard characterizes the challenge of strategic public management in terms of increasing the overlap among three circles (value, capacity, and support) in a Venn diagram.

d. Moore characterizes strategic public management as the interplay between questions pertaining to legitimacy and support, questions pertaining to operational capacity, and questions relating to public value.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the Kennedy School’s value-capacity-support model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Kennedy School’s value-capacity-support model is a framework for strategic analysis that had been widely taught in Kennedy School courses and executive programs.

b. The framework requires asking whether the operation of an action, program, or initiative would create net public value.

c. The framework requires asking whether the existing capacity of the organization is adequate to carry out the program that is being analyzed and whether the program either is or would be supported, on balance by the constituencies whose support is relevant to it.

d. The framework describes the strategic responsibilities of the public official as moving capacity and support toward the best estimate of where public value lies and improving the accuracy and reliability of the estimate of where public value lies.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public value choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public value is the market value of a government good or service.

b. Public value is a concept developed by Mark Moore to describe the value that an organization contributes to society.

c. Public value asks public officials to consider the benefits and costs of public services not only in terms of dollars and cents, but also in terms of how government actions affect important civic and democratic principles such as equity, liberty, responsiveness, transparency, participation, and citizenship.

d. Public value seeks to provide public officials with the ability to talk about the net benefit of government actions, while overcoming the limitations inherent in attempting to create a “bottom line” that is analogous to that of the private sector.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term Moore’s strategic triangle choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The strategic triangle shows that public value is created when a given strategy or action has democratic legitimacy (e.g., the community supports it) and the support of the authorizing environment (e.g., a governing board), and when the government has the operational capacity to implement the strategy or action effectively.

b. There is a feedback system in place – when public value is created, so is greater legitimacy and support (e.g., citizens and elected officials have greater trust in the government), and operational capacity is increased (e.g., financial and other resources could be easier to obtain).

c. When managers firm up the legitimacy and support perspective, they make it easier to get inputs (e.g., money, volunteers, etc.) into the government organization.

d. When they firm up the operational capacity perspective, those inputs are more efficiently and effectively turned into outputs that create public value, which then leads to greater legitimacy and support.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public value account choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The public value account is a concept developed by Mark Moore to help define a comprehensive and accurate picture of a given public agency’s performance.

b. The public value account enumerates the use of collectively owned assets and associated costs on one side of the ledger and the achievement of collectively valued social outcomes on the other.

c. The public value account includes on the left side of the ledger financial costs, unintended negative consequences, and the social costs of using state authority.

d. One shortcoming of the public value account is that it does not include consequences for justice and fairness.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public value scorecard choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The public value scorecard is a framework developed by Mark Moore that translates an abstract idea of public value creation into a concrete set of performance measures that can both monitor value creation in the past and guide managerial action necessary to sustain or create greater value in the future.

b. The public value scorecard is essentially the same as the public value account.

c. The public value scorecard includes as one of its three elements the legitimacy and support perspective.

d. The public value scorecard includes as one of its three elements the operational capacity perspective.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public authority choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public authority is the capacity to create public good.

b. Public authority is the coercive power of the state.

c. Public authority should not be considered free of charge.

d. Every time the state uses its authority, some of the freedom or privacy available to individuals in charting their own course in life is lost.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term political management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Political management is a nexus where politics, law, and administration necessarily engage each other.

b. Political management is the part of strategic management that is concerned with managing upward, toward politics.

c. Political management involves building a climate of tolerance, active support, or ongoing operational assistance for a manager, a policy, or an overall strategy among those outside the scope of an official’s direct authority whose authorizations or operational assistance are necessary to achieve the public purposes for which the official will be held accountable.

d. Political management shapes mandates for action and invests them with the political support and legitimacy that managers need to direct operations and achieve the mandated purposes.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.02.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term operational management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Operational management is the self-conscious, skilled deployment of legal, financial, material, and human assets to produce concrete results.

b. The heart of operational management lies in delivering the envisioned value.

c. Operational managers can create public value by increasing the quantity or quality of public activities per resource expended and by reducing the costs (in terms of money and authority) used to achieve current levels of production.

d. Operational managers can create public value by making public organizations better able to identify and respond to citizens’ aspirations, by enhancing the fairness with which public sector operations operate; and by increasing their continuing capacity to respond and innovate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 3 – Writing and Teamwork

CCQ1007.03.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Smith’s 3-step approach to policy communication choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy is about problems, so some discussion and definition of the problem are necessary.

b. Decisionmakers like to have options, not for their own sake but because most policy issues involve a balance of interests and values, and have a spectrum of options that strike the balance in different ways is useful.

c. The preparation step includes identifying the significant actors, their roles, and their interests.

d. The plan step includes determining the appropriate medium – e.g., written document, presentation, e-mail.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Young and Quinn’s writing checklist for problem definition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy papers should avoid appendices and bibliographies.

b. The generic outline for a policy paper consists of title, table of contents, abstract/executive summary, introduction, problem description, policy options, conclusion and recommendations, appendices, bibliography, and endnotes.

c. The importance of writing effective titles for papers is often underestimated, but it is significant that the title is more than likely the first part of a paper readers see and it begins the process of communicating the message contained in the policy paper.

d. The problem definition is usually placed early in the introduction and is crucial in convincing your reader to share your viewpoint that an urgent problem exists and that your paper is worth reading because it will offer possible solutions to the problem.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Behn’s craft of memo writing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Writing memoranda in public management should be considered a craft, with detailed attention to design and technique.

b. You may never acquire the importance and influence that you seek – and make the career advances that you desire – without first developing your ability to write clearly, coherently, and persuasively.

c. Write for your specific audience; do not concern yourself with potential secondary circulation of the memo.

d. Omit needless words; if it is possible to cut out a word, always cut it out.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.04.  Among the statements a-d pertaining to writing a briefing note choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Briefing notes are a way to succinctly provide information quickly and effectively up the decision-making chain.

b. Most briefing notes include a Title that at a glance describes the note for the reader and a Summary – a section with 2-3 bullet points providing the highest-level summary of the issue possible.

c. The Background section of the briefing note provides the contextual information that is necessary for the reader to know, usually including who is involved, what is being done, when it is being done.

d. Everything included in the briefing note should be factual, simple, and relevant; if there an extremely important statistic or quote that would assist the reader it should be included in a prominent position.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using plain language choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Using plain language in written communication helps convey information easily and unambiguously.

b. Plain language requires using a highly simplified style, comprehensible by a sixth grade reader.

c. A number of general features distinguish plain language documents from traditional styles of government writing: they are organized for easy reading; they use words effectively; they are built of clear, simple sentences and paragraphs; and they are designed for visual appeal.

d. Plain language deals with more than words and also includes organization, document design, and sentence and paragraph style.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to style guides choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A style guide is a set of standards for writing.

b. A style guide can be developed for a specific publication, organization, or field.

c. A style and deals with spelling and grammar – not design.

d. A useful style guide for Canada is entitle The Canadian Style and includes advice on plain language.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats (SWOT) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A SWOT analysis can be carried out for a product, place, industry, or person and involves specifying the objective of the venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favourable and unfavourable to achieve that objective.

b. A realistic recognition of the weaknesses and threats that exist for your effort is the first step to countering them with a robust set of strategies that build upon strengths and opportunities.

c. SWOT usually reflects your current position or situation and a drawback is that it might not encourage openness to new possibilities.

d. Although SWOT was a popular technique in the late 20th century it is rarely used today.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to teamwork and tribal instincts choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Humans are social animals whose behaviour in groups and teams is partly driven by tribal instincts.

b. Tribal instincts produce a separation between us and them, and it is implied that “we” are superior to the others.

c. Tribal instincts can challenge team effectiveness because membership in a group partly deprives the individual of the freedom he or she craves but has to sacrifice in order to be predictable in the group.

d. Tribal instincts can be harnessed to build teams quickly by placing people into a situation where they experience the “fight or flight” instinct, while being members of a newly formed and supportive team, and where “fight” is the only realistic option.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creating a team choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A team is a collection of individuals organized to accomplish a common purpose, who are interdependent, and who can be identified by themselves and observers as a team.

b. Five stages of team development can be characterized as forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

c. When personal conflicts arise, it is usually preferable to give them time sort themselves out on their own because attempts to address them explicitly will almost always jeopardize team morale.

d. A clear direction, clear responsibilities and knowledgeable members are characteristics of effective teams.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.03.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to conducting a meeting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In planning a meeting, one should consider the goal or purpose of the meeting and be sure to invite those members of the organization who have the information or opinions necessary for the meeting.

b. Meetings are often the most effective way to manage projects, manage people, interact with clients, and to address workplace problems.

c. There are situations in which bringing a large group together to address an issue may cause further confusion and conflict.

d. It is usually preferable to avoid a printed agenda because this tends to overly formalize the proceedings and suppresses spontaneity.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 4 – Legitimacy, Support, and Risk

CCQ1007.04.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term Moore’s legitimacy and support perspective choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Moore’s legitimacy and support perspective is as a set of measures designed to capture an organization’s standing with all those individual and collective actors who provide it with the social legitimacy, public authority, and public funding necessary to sustain itself.

b. The legitimacy and support perspective asks managers to consider the extent to which the organization’s mission is aligned with the community’s values, including those of segments of the community that might not normally be engaged with the government.

c. The legitimacy and support perspective asks managers to think about the organization’s standing with formal authorizers (e.g., the governing board), the media, and general citizenry, as well as influential individuals outside of the formal organization and the standing of the organization in larger policy discussions (e.g., political campaigns, the campaign promises of current elected leaders).

d. The legitimacy and support perspective considers legislative actions that could affect the organization and considers how citizens are engaged in helping to produce public services (e.g., volunteers).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term government program choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A program is a group of related resource inputs and activities that are managed to meet specific needs and to achieve intended results, and that are treated as a budgetary unit.

b. A government program is a crucial unit for analysis and debate in public management because it is the operational reality associated with a government’s promises and policies.

c. A program is usually managed by a specific institutional unit with its specific governance arrangements.

d. For the purposes of presentations to legislatures for approval, programs are indivisible units and cannot be divided into sub-programs or sub-sub-programs.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Niskanen’s budget maximizing model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The budget maximizing model developed by William Niskanen in the 1970s argued that rational bureaucrats will always and everywhere seek to increase their budgets in order to increase their own power, thereby contributing strongly to state growth and potentially reducing social efficiency.

b. The model contemplates a bureaucrat who heads a public administration department, and who will try to maximize the department’s budget, thus increasing its salaries and prestige.

c. The legislature, or Government, defines the department’s budget, depending on the quantity which it supplies, and the more services the department supplies, the higher will its budget be.

d. Niskanen’s model says that, as in a typical private-sector utility maximizing model, the department would expand services (and budgets) to the point that the marginal cost and marginal benefits are equated.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to media bias and agenda setting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public policy is shaped and fashioned by a host of actors – ordinary citizens, politicians, public officials, think tanks, academic institutions, government relations experts, nongovernmental organizations – but debates over policy rarely take place directly, and most citizens get exposed to these debates through the media, typically television news, magazines, newspapers, and so on.

b. A relevant question is whether these media simply and faithfully channel those debates to the public, or whether they have their own biases and agendas, and consequently an independent effect by shaping how people think about policy issues.

c. Recent research suggests that the agenda-setting power of the media has been somewhat exaggerated.

d. There is no analytic basis for the concern that modern media, especially television, operate on a logic that is rapidly dumbing down the citizenry and eroding public trust and civic engagement.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term networking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Networking should consist of give-and-take relationships.

b. Successful networking involves making it a personal practice to view every situation – both inside and outside of the work environment – as an opportunity to meet new people.

c. Networking is the ongoing process of cultivating and maintaining relationships with a diverse network of individuals and organisations who share a common set of principles and values.

d. Networking is the process of intentionally meeting people, making contacts, and forming relationships in hopes of gaining access to such business-related benefits as career advice, job leads, business referrals, useful information and ideas, and emotional support.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to gaining standing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Build your network because it’s always helpful to have a strong network of fellow professionals who know you, trust you, and believe in you.

b. Embrace the power of your difference because when your background is different than others you see the world in different ways.

c. Make your expertise undeniable by starting with a niche because, although it can be hard to be recognized as an expert if you’re a generalist, if you can demonstrate a superior knowledge of a narrow subject then once others recognize your expertise they will be more likely to listen to you on a variety of related subjects.

d. Share your knowledge because one of the best ways to convince skeptics of your merits is to prove you know what you’re doing.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creating a coalition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Coalitions should be unnecessary in organizations with well established lines of authority and communication.

b. Coalitions are a potent force in organizations.

c. Coalitions take time to form as participants identify the common goal and the best manner to approach that goal.

d. Coalition building can be viewed from an interdisciplinary perspective drawing on insights from organizational behaviour, social psychology, and political science.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to risk and risk management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Risk can be defined as an event or circumstance in the future that could significantly enhance or impede the ability of an organization to achieve its current or future business objectives.

b. All organizations should define risk in the same way.

c. Risk management is the process of managing risk.

d. Risk management includes understanding the risks to the business, building vigilance into the organization in a systematic way, and communicating to the organization and its stakeholders.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to risk assessment choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Risk assessment involves consideration of the types and nature of risk facing an organization.

b. Risk assessment includes conducting an internal and external environmental scan.

c. Risks can include threats and opportunities associated with program design and delivery, including business processes.

d. Threats and opportunities associated with the political climate are outside the scope of organizational risk assessment.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.04.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to risk mapping choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Risk mapping usually displays assessments along the two axes that define risk – probability and impact.

b. The probability-impact axes can be configured in various ways.

c. At its simplest, this mapping process will produce four quadrants, each of which has unique characteristics.

d. A risk matrix defines risk levels and indicates what sort of managerial attention is needed for each level.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 5 – Interests, Stakeholders, and Perspectives on Change

CCQ1007.05.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Leonard’s note on public sector strategy-building choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Herman Leonard says one must be clear about the unit of analysis, i.e., the contemplated or ongoing action, program, initiative, or venture.

b. Leonard says one must be clear about the actor or decision-maker from whose perspective we are carrying out the analysis, since the analysis may differ depending on whose strategy we are trying to build.

c. Leonard says that the challenge is not simply to understand where a given program may be in the value-capacity-support domain but to determine a set of actions and interventions that will reliably improve the strategic setting of the program.

d. Leonard notes that the set of actions designed to create these improvements is the strategy – a coordinated series of actions – derived from the strategic analysis carried out through applying the analytical framework as a starting point in the analysis.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term interests choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In policy design and implementation, the only interest one needs to consider is the public interest.

b. Some writers, including Theodore Benditt, take the concept of interests to be the central notion in politics.

c. Benditt’s enumeration of accounts of interests in political theory includes feelings or attitudes, and attitudes shared by groups of people.

d. Benditt’s enumeration of accounts of interests in political theory includes wants and claims or demands, as well as changes that affect one advantageously or disadvantageously.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term stakeholders choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A stakeholder is anybody who can affect or is affected by an organization, strategy or project.

b. An objective policy analyst should minimize contact with stakeholders and politely ignore their representations since these would be distort the process of developing recommendations on the basis of sound theory and documented evidence.

c. Stakeholders are often crucial to the success of a government initiative.

d. Useful techniques for indentifying stakeholders include brainstorming, and consulting organization charts and directories.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term endowment effect choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The endowment effect is the long-term influence that wealthy philanthropist can have on public policy.

b. The endowment effect is a bias that occurs when we overvalue a good that we own, regardless of its objective market value.

c. The endowment effect is an illustration of the status quo bias and can be explained by loss aversion.

d. People place a greater value on things once they have established ownership, which is especially true for goods that wouldn’t normally be bought or sold on the market, usually items with symbolic, experiential, or emotional significance.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term issue framing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Issue framing is the exercise of specifying the matters that are inside the area of consideration and those that are outside.

b. Issue framing is a way of depicting a policy issue or problem in broad and understandable, if somewhat simplified terms.

c. The first part of issue framing has to do with logical elements that make up an argument or claim.

d. The second part of issue framing has to do with policy communications and uses powerful rhetorical tools such as metaphors and labels.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to consulting stakeholders and engaging citizens, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Consultations and citizen engagement can be seen as empty theatrics where interest groups rant predictably while decisionmakers watch the clock, waiting for it all to be over so that they can then go and make the decisions they were going to make anyway.

b. Policymakers genuinely believe that consultation in policy design and partnership in policy delivery are important aspects of their jobs, partly because some form of consultation with the public is increasingly mandated as an aspect of public policy development.

c. The shift to “engagement” from “consultation” seems to have occurred, in part, because of the continued lack of trust that citizens have toward government and dissatisfaction with the connotations of consultation – a process that suggests a fairly passive communication of views from stakeholders to government officials who will ultimately make the key decisions.

d. To the extent that governments at all levels feel the need to introduce unpopular policies, particularly cuts to services and social protection, most will avoid “citizen engagement” since they know perfectly well what the outcome will be – howls of pain and outrage.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy window choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy windows are defined as unpredictable openings in the policy process that create the possibility for influence over the direction and outcome of that process.

b. A great deal of the agenda-setting process is contingent on unpredictable factors and personalities – i.e., to the opening of policy windows.

c. Windows sometimes open regularly but who jumps through successfully or not is still a matter of chance and skill.

d. A policy window is a mixture of empirical information and emotive appeals that explain the issue and justify the public policy response.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to open policy making choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Open policy making is about allowing the public and journalists to observe the meetings where government decisions are taken.

b. Open policy making is about developing and delivering policy in a fast-paced and increasingly networked and digital world.

c. Open policy making uses collaborative approaches in the policy making process, so that policy is informed by a broad range of input and expertise and meets user needs.

d. Open policy making includes testing and iteratively improving policy to meet complex, changing user needs and making sure it can be successfully implemented.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to rational decision making model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The steps in the rational model are choosing models, identifying needs, aligning objectives with needs, and selecting options.

b. The rational model has embedded within it a strong concern with efficiency.

c. Pure rationality in decisionmaking is not possible and people have to make decisions under various constraints.

d. Making decisions rationally is not the same as making reasonable decisions – a reasonable or good decision is defined less by the process that produced it than by its appropriateness as a solution to the initial problem.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.05.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Lindblom’s incrementalism and muddling through choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Charles Lindblom argued that the unforgiving strictures of rational decisionmaking were so unrealistic in terms of the cognitive and political situation faced by most decisionmakers that they made choices by “muddling through.”

b. Lindblom argued that in the real world of politics and administration there are multiple decisionmakers with conflicting perspectives and priorities.

c. Lindblom argued that policymaking is a struggle over the criteria of social classification, the boundaries of problem categories, and the intersubjective interpretation of common experiences.

d. Lindblom argued that decisions get made on the basis of successive limited comparisons.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 6 – Designing the Delivery Model and Improving Performance

CCQ1007.06.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Moore’s operational capacity perspective choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The operational capacity perspective is a set of measures designed to capture the organization’s ability to engage in the activities and produce the outputs that are thought to be consistent with achieving desired social outcomes.

b. Moore’s operational capacity perspective includes the flow of resources to the enterprise and the size and quality of the workforce.

c. Moore’s operational capacity perspective includes operational policies, programs and procedures.

d. Moore’s operational capacity perspective includes concepts that are not part of the approach to performance management for most public sector organizations, for example continuous improvement methodologies such as Lean and Six Sigma, structured management of innovation, and active development of volunteer efforts from the community.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s classification of policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Leslie Pal provides a classification of policy instruments, noting that it is deliberately eclectic because there is no universally accepted typology, and because most typologies of instruments emphasize different criteria.

b. Doing nothing is a nondecision and cannot be considered a valid policy instrument.

c. Information-based policy instruments include government-directed attempts at influencing people through transfer of knowledge, communication of reasoned argument, and moral suasion in order to achieve a policy result.

d. Regulation draws on the most fundamental resource a government has – its capacity to command and prohibit.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Bardach’s Things Governments Do choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bardach’s list of things governments do does not include education or consultation.

b. Bardach’s list of things governments do includes abolishing an old tax.

c. Bardach’s list of things governments do includes opening loopholes in a regulation.

d. Bardach’s list of things governments do includes loosening enforcement on subsidies and grants.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using expenditure-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. With expenditure-based policy instruments, governments are not trying to achieve their objectives or outcomes by changing the information that undergirds behaviour, but rather the calculus of costs, benefits, and financial resources.

b. In Canadian usage, contributions are similar to grants but with fewer conditions attached.

c. Expenditure instruments pose substantial management challenges in terms of ensuring that conditions are met and monies are spent appropriately.

d. From the policymaker’s point of view, virtually every policy instrument involves expenditure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to grants and contributions choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A grant is a transfer payment subject to pre-established eligibility and other entitlement criteria.

b. A contribution is a transfer payment subject to performance conditions specified in a funding agreement.

c. The distinction between a grant and a contribution is unambiguous.

d. Perennial concerns in the design and administration of grants and contributions programs are conditionality and the related matter of reporting requirements.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to conditionality and reporting requirements choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Conditionality refers to the use of conditions attached to the provision of benefits such as a loan, debt relief or bilateral aid.

b. Recipients usually prefer a higher degree of conditionality because this reduces ambiguity.

c. A higher degree of conditionality usually leads to higher reporting requirements to the entity providing the benefits.

d. Concerns related to incrementality and fungibility press in the direction of increasing conditionality and reporting requirements, while efforts at red tape reduction press in the opposite direction.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to incrementality and fungibility choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Incrementality is the amount of change caused by a small increment of input.

b. Fungibility is a good or asset’s interchangeability with other individual goods or assets of the same type.

c. The fungibility of money makes it difficult to determine the incrementality of government initiatives that use expenditure-based policy instruments.

d. Incrementality and fungibility are perennial issues for programs relying on grants and contributions, particularity in respect of conditionality and reporting requirements.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to delivery chain choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. To develop a delivery chain, it is necessary to first have an understanding of who is involved in the delivery of the initiative.

b. A delivery chain identifies everyone that would be engaged to help deliver an intended outcome.

c. A delivery chain identifies all of the links through which a policy impacts.

d. The delivery chain acts as a diagnostic tool to assess risks or identify design challenges and develop mitigation strategies for working with all of the key players.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to management improvement methodologies – TQM, six sigma, and lean, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Techniques and methodologies for improving productivity and profitability of business enterprises provide models for potential application to improving the operations of public institutions.

b. Techniques and methodologies for improving productivity and profitability of business enterprises are rarely marketed to public sector organization by consulting firms.

c. TQM can be considered as a business philosophy which explains the ways of managing people and business processes in order to ensure customer satisfaction at every stage of the business.

d. Six Sigma is a particular type of an improvement system for existing processes that are below the specification that are moving towards the incremental improvements.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.06.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to OECD’s Observatory of Public Sector Innovation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The OECD’s Observatory of Public Sector Innovation (OPSI) is a Paris-based review group that scans leading innovations around the world that may be of use to OECD member countries.

b. The OECD’s Observatory of Public Sector Innovation (OPSI) collects and analyses examples and shared experiences of public sector innovation to provide practical advice to countries on how to make innovations work.

c. The OPSI’s online platform is intended to be a place where users interested in public sector innovation can access information on innovations.

d. The OPSI’s online platform is intended to be a place where representatives of member countries can share their experiences and collaborate with other users.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 7 – Performance Measurement, Accountability, and Good Governance

CCQ1007.07.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term performance measurement choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Performance measurement is the process and systems of selection, development and on-going use of performance measures to guide decision-making.

b. A performance measure is as a qualitative or quantitative means of measuring an output or outcome, with the intention of gauging the performance of an organization, program, policy or initiative respecting expected results.

c. It is often easier to operationalize a performance measurement framework than to define performance objectives.

d. While financial measures are often among the easiest to identify and collect data on, performance measures must reflect all aspects of the organization.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term accountability choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Accountability is the obligation to demonstrate and take responsibility for performance in light of commitments and expected outcomes.

b. Accountability is the acceptance of personal consequences or sanctions for problems that could have been avoided or were not corrected in a timely fashion.

c. It is unreasonable to expect someone to be accountable for success if the conditions or expectations of success are not defined or understood prior to starting an endeavour.

d. Those accountable should understand policies, best practices, laws and regulations, as well as mandates and ensure that their processes are compliant.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term good governance choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Good governance is about making correct decisions, regardless of the process for making those decisions.

b. Good governance is about the processes for making and implementing decisions.

c. Accountability is a fundamental requirement of good governance.

d. People should be able to clearly see how and why a decision was made including what information and advice was considered..

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the contrasting purposes of evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One purpose of evaluation is program improvement.

b. A second purpose of evaluation is accountability.

c. Evaluations can also be done to generate more general knowledge that may or may not be directly relevant to the program but that might cast light on a social issue or casual questions.

d. It is relatively easy to conduct an evaluation that will simultaneously serve the goals of program improvement and accountability.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to logic models choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A logic model is a graphical representation of the links between program inputs, activities, outputs, immediate outcomes, and long-term results.

b. A logic model is a plausible and sensible model of how the program will work under certain environmental conditions to solve identified problems.

c. The essence of a logic model is a narrative of what the program is targeting, how it works, and what it is trying to achieve.

d. A logic model is usually depicted as a chart or diagram.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term attribution problem choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The attribution problem is the difficulty of determining the real source of the key ideas in an evaluation.

b. The attribution problem is the difficulty of determining what the specific contribution of a policy or program intervention has been to outcomes, in contrast to all other possible factors that might have affected those outcomes.

c. Attribution is a problem that should not be ignored when trying to assess the performance of government programs.

d. The attribution problem is one of the most challenging issues in program evaluation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term confirmation bias choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Confirmation bias is a tendency to search for or interpret information in a way that confirms one’s preconceptions, leading to statistical errors.

b. Confirmation bias is a type of cognitive bias and represents an error of inductive inference toward confirmation of the hypothesis under study.

c. Confirmation bias is a phenomenon wherein decision makers have been shown to actively seek out and assign more weight to evidence that confirms their hypothesis, and ignore or underweigh evidence that could disconfirm their hypothesis.

d. Confirmation bias is easy to overcome with a little effort and rational thought.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Klitgaard’s policy and evaluation version 2.0, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Robert Klitgaard suggests that it is time to move from version 1.0 to 2.0 of the way we think about policy analysis and evaluation.

b. Version 1.0 features a decisionmaker and clear, agreed-upon objectives while version 2.0 has many decisionmakers and stakeholders and unclear objectives.

c. Version 1.0 features good data and accepted models while version 2.0 has incomplete data and imperfect models.

d. Klitgaard concludes that rather than trying to derive an answer or dictate a policy, analysis can enhance creativity.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to performance reporting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Performance reporting, or managing for results, can be considered to be a type of benefit-cost analysis.

b. Since performance measurement is about measuring the success of a program, it is vital to know what that program is about and what its intended objectives are.

c. At the heart of any process of performance reporting is a “logic model” that ties inputs to activities, to short-term, intermediate, and final or ultimate outcomes.

d. A key challenge in performance measurement is attribution, or determining what a program’s contribution has been to a specific outcome.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.07.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to comparing audit and evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Although the internal audit and evaluation functions within an organization are similar in some respects there are crucial differences in purpose and methodology.

b. Audits make heavy use of logic models while evaluations make use of sample testing.

c. The subjects of internal audit tend to be even less enthusiastic about the process than the subjects of evaluations.

d. Internal audit can ask whether there is a performance measurement system in place while evaluations ask what the performance measures tell and how can they be improved.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 8 – Communications Planning

CCQ1007.08.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the crucial role of communication choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. To maintain the integrity of an evidence-based approach to policy analysis, it is crucial to distinguish the objective function of policy design from the subjective function of policy communication.

b. Policy is inseparable from communication, which is the lubricant for every phase of the cycle.

c. Public policy is not only made; it is sold, and sold to a large number of disparate and different audiences.

d. Complementing the logic of arguments is the art of issue framing, a deliberate technique for depicting a policy issue in understandable terms.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to a communications plan choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A communications plan sets out a strategy for announcing a proposed initiative.

b. A communications plan should include an analysis of the environment in which the proposed announcement would be made, including reference to available public opinion research and analysis of the views and positions of stakeholders, provincial-territorial governments and media on the issue addressed.

c. A communications plan should include an explanation of the anticipated profile, scope and reach of the announcement (e.g., local, regional, national) and should set out any outreach to media and stakeholders, and any events that are planned to take place in conjunction with the announcement.

d. A communications plan should describe the risks and opportunities of the communications strategy.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public opinion research choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public opinion research is the planned, one-way systematic collection of opinion-based information from the public, private individuals, and representatives of businesses or other entities.

b. Although once fashionable, public opinion research is now a discredited practice that is rarely used by Canadian governments.

c. Public opinion research uses quantitative or qualitative methods and techniques to provide insight and support decision making.

d. Public opinion research can use collection techniques such as online research panels, virtual or in-person focus groups or mini-groups, in-depth or intercept interviews, and telephone, mail, online, or electronic surveys.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to types of attitude change choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The goal of persuasion should always be to convert the listener to your view.

b. One must ask what degree of attitude change is most appropriate for the particular persuasion situation, and should have a strategic objective clearly in mind.

c. Conversion is changing on opposing view to your view.

d. De-activation is changing an opposing view to not sure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Paul Thomas on political staff and communications choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Prime Minister’s Office of the day welcomed Paul Thomas’s study on communications at the centre of government, undertaken at the request of a Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister to head the Inquiry into Certain Allegations Respecting Business and Financial Dealings Between Karlheinz Schreiber and the Right Honourable Brian Mulroney.

b. Thomas concluded that the “accountability industry” sent a very clear message to the public service: do not screw up, and be prepared to pay a serious price when abuses or blunders are uncovered.

c. Thomas concluded that the accounting officer model for deputy ministers, adopted without any formal modification to the constitutional conventions of ministerial responsibility, has resulted in ambiguity about where ministerial responsibility ends and administrative accountability begins and has led to concern within the public service that blame shifting will occur when something goes wrong and that individual public servants will be named and blamed in the parliamentary process and in the media.

d. Thomas worried that the clerk of the privy council and the roster of deputy ministerial level appointees could begin to see themselves less as semi-independent professional partners with political leaders engaged in the co-production of good government, and more as fixers who help their political masters manage agendas and fix political problems – including communications activities intended to present the government’s performance in the best possible light.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to open government choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Open government is the opening up of government processes, proceedings, documents and data for public scrutiny and involvement.

b. An open government initiative might include giving citizen more opportunities to weigh-in on government decision-making.

c. An open government initiative might include sharing government data online so everyone can help solve problems that affect citizens every day.

d. Few jurisdictions within the OECD – national, subnational, or even municipal – have undertaken any form of open government initiative.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Aristotle’s 3 rhetorical appeals choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Logos, ethos and pathos are the three rhetorical appeals.

b. Logos refers to creating a logical argument, and one of the principles is simplicity.

c. Ethos refers to the emotional connection to the audience and one of the principles is knowing the context.

d. Pathos includes the ability to share your own feelings and reactions, and one of the techniques is to be personal.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Orren’s 20 principles of persuasion choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The 20 principles of persuasion have been developed by Gary Orren, a professor at the Harvard Kennedy School.

b. The principles can be organized under Aristotle’s categories of logos, ethos, and pathos.

c. Principles under the logos heading include Simplicity/Clarity, Analogies/Metaphors, Storytelling, and Repetition.

d. Principles under the ethos heading include Authority/Credibility, Reciprocation, and Humour.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term reciprocity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. People are more likely to say yes to those who they owe.

b. We are more likely to persuade someone if we have given them something – when we make a concession.

c. There are substantive and stylistic concessions and one of the easiest concessions to make is respectful listening.

d. An effective way to reciprocate in listening is to use language that is equivocal and doubtful.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.08.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to storytelling choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Stories are used extensively in religious texts and lead to higher retention by listeners because they represent an intrinsic reality and thus have credibility.

b. Stories tend to follow a universal structure, described by German novelist Gustav Freytag as a pyramid with seven elements.

c. At the dénouement any remaining secrets, questions or mysteries which remain after the resolution are solved by the characters or explained by the author.

d. The story structure is less useful for short presentations than for long presentations.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 9 – Advising Elected Officials

CCQ1007.09.01. Among statements a-d pertaining to speaking truth to power choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Speaking truth to power is a term used to capture the role of public servants in a Westminster system of government to advise the political executive without fear or favour.

b. Speaking truth to power is a concept with little direct relevance to public servants who are not involved in the process of preparing advice for Ministers.

c. Speaking truth to power is an obligation to tell people not what they want to hear, but rather what they need to hear.

d. Speaking truth to power includes recognizing when the argument is over and not to keep on fighting after the issue has been decided.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.02. Among statements a-d pertaining to political executive vs. civil service choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The political executive directs the government of the day.

b. The civil service, like the Crown itself, enjoys continuity through transitions of government.

c. The political executive and the civil service may be seen as at once interdependent and independent entities within government.

d. In a well-functioning Westminster democracy the role distinctions between the political executive and the civil service are relatively clear cut and tensions rarely arise..

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.03. Among statements a-d pertaining to the constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants are appointed and promoted on the basis of merit rather than of party affiliation or contributions.

b. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants do not engage in partisan political activities and do not express publicly their personal views on government policies or administration.

c. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants provide forthright and objective advice to their political masters in private and in confidence; in return, political executives protect the anonymity of public servants by publicly accepting responsibility for departmental decisions.

d. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants execute policy decisions loyally, irrespective of the philosophy and programs of the party in power and regardless of their personal opinions; as a result, public servants enjoy security of tenure during good behaviour and satisfactory performance.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.04. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term accounting officer choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Accounting officer is a designation for the senior public servant in a department that has long been used in the United Kingdom and was adopted in 2006 by the Government of Canada as part of the Federal Accountability Act.

b. Accounting officers have a legal obligation to appear before committees of the Senate and House of Commons and answer questions on the management responsibilities set out in section 16.4 of the FAA.

c. This legal obligation operates within the framework of ministerial responsibility and accountability to Parliament.

d. Ministers, and they alone, are accountable to Parliament for all actions of the executive including management..

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.05. Among statements a-d pertaining to political aide choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Political aides, also called political staffers, are employees who are hired and fired by the minister, or the prime minister, whose salaries and benefits are paid from government revenues, but who are not part of the regular public service and are permitted to be explicitly political.

b. Political aides are able to draft speeches, press releases and other documents that conform to the overall political direction of the government.

c. Political aides provide advice to the minister about pending policy matters or cabinet or parliamentary business that must be managed in accordance with the government’s political environment.

d. Most functions performed by political aides could, from a constitutional and legal perspective, be assigned to non-partisan public servants but it would be more costly to do so.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.06. Among statements a-d pertaining to ministerial responsibility choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The principle of ministerial responsibility holds that if civil servants carry out the minister’s orders, or act in accordance with the minister’s policy, it is for the minister and not for the civil servants to take any blame.

b. Ministerial responsibility means that a minister must resign if a serious and avoidable error occurs within the government portfolio which the minister heads.

c. Traditionally, ministerial responsibility has been viewed as the most important and most contentious of Westminster government conventions. But it is rarely defined, and this lack of a shared understanding of its requirements permits confusing, creative, and misleading interpretations of its meaning.

d. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service is part of what is sometimes referred to in the public administration literature as the iron triangle of conventions consisting of political neutrality, ministerial responsibility, and public service anonymity.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.07. Among statements a-d pertaining to public service anonymity choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public service anonymity is the convention that ministers answer to Parliament and to the public for government actions without naming the public servants who provided advice or who carried out the administrative action.

b. The constitutional convention of public service anonymity has been strengthened by the clear rules set out in legislation on the duties of the accounting officer.

c. The anonymity of the civil service is linked to two concepts: permanence and neutrality. Civil servants, many of whom remain in their jobs whilst serving numerous governments, are thus likely to have to give advice to governments of different political parties, who may have different attitudes to policy. The advice they give needs to be given to ministers both freely and also without fear of adverse public or political reactions and without fear of future career damage.

d. The anonymity of the civil service is linked to the concept of ministerial responsibility, whereby the convention is for the minister to accept responsibility for their actions and decisions and those of their departments.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.08. Among statements a-d pertaining to access to information (freedom of information) policies choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Access to information (or freedom of information) policies specify the obligations of government entities to respond to request for information.

b. Properly designed freedom of information legislation will not significantly affect the way that analysis and advice is generated and shared within public institutions.

c. The Canadian legislation provides a right of access to information in records under the control of a government institution in accordance with the principles that government information should be available to the public, that necessary exceptions to the right of access should be limited and specific and that decisions on the disclosure of government information should be reviewed independently of government.

d. In Canada the average administrative cost of responding to an access to information request is over $1,000.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.09. Among statements a-d pertaining to political neutrality of public servants choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Political neutrality is a constitutional convention which provides that public servants should avoid activities likely to impair, or seem to impair, their political impartiality or the political impartiality of the public service.

b. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service is part of what is sometimes referred to in the public administration literature as the ‘iron triangle’ of conventions consisting of political neutrality, ministerial responsibility, and public service anonymity.

c. The convention of political neutrality does not apply to public service unions and it is widely accepted that if a public service union actively supports a political party it does not impede the ability of individual union members to perform their jobs in a politically neutral manner.

d. The fact that political neutrality of public servants is not part of the written constitution does not detract from their centrality to Canada’s constitutional system.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.09.10. Among statements a-d pertaining to the UK Civil Service Skills and Knowledge Framework choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to consider and balance evidence, politics, and delivery at whatever stage the policy is at.

b. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to understand and manage the political context by monitoring the political context and giving timely, honest, objective and impartial advice and recommendations to respond to the changing context in which Ministers operate.

c. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to respond to the change in relationship with ministers at different stages of policy development; balancing the political view with other considerations.

d. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to support ministers’ engagement with parliament and enable public accountability in their area.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 10 – Presenting and Speaking

CCQ1007.10.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to making slide presentations choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. PowerPoint slides often supplement oral presentations, and indeed sometimes replace written reports altogether as nonverbal means of communication.

b. Eugene Bardach’s advice on using PowerPoint slides includes keeping it simple with having each slide present a separate point.

c. Bardach recommends using only two or at most three colours.

d. Bardach believes that visual supplements, such as photographs, can nicely support all the words, provided they are carefully chosen and displayed

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to beginning with a grabber choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Because audience members who are interested in your subject will focus on your content there is no particular value in trying to “begin with a bang.”

b. Once the speaker has the attention of the audience, it is useful to quickly establish rapport.

c. Peter Jeff’s pneumonic, TEASE, provides the following five ways to start a speech: Testimonial (citing the behaviour of a celebrity pertinent to X and/or quote an influential person the audience will know of or respect); Evidence (presenting statistics or other data on X); Anecdote (telling a story of someone directly affected by X); Statement (making a bold observation on the importance of X) and Example (citing a person whose career really took off because of X).

d.  Marie Danziger suggests seven possible ways to establish rapport with the audience in the first 60 seconds: Compliment them; Identify with them; Tell them a funny story; Address their immediate concerns, fears, or expectations; Acknowledge some difference or problem between you and them (if appropriate!); Describe an interesting story you just read or experienced – or a movie or TV show you just saw – to introduce your main theme; Share your real-time feelings about the place, the occasion, or events that have just taken place.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to ending memorably choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bookend close: Refer back to your opening anecdote or quote.

b. Callback close: Refer back to a story you told where some activity was not fully completed.

c. Repetitive close: Find a phrase and structure it in a repetitive format that strikes the cadence of a drummer, building to a crescendo ending of a motivational speech.

d. Third party close: Use the premise of a quotation to frame your finale so that it serves as a launching pad to lift your message high for the audience to more fully appreciate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to elevator pitch choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Persuasive speakers should be able to describe yourself, your proposal and its value proposition in 30 to 120 seconds, the time span of an elevator ride.

b. The purpose of the elevator pitch is interest the listener sufficiently to allow you to make the full pitch.

c. An elevator pitch has less utility in a policy-making environment than it does in a business environment.

d. Elements of an elevator pitch can include answers to the following five questions: Who are you? What is your policy area? Why is it important? What is your goal? How will you carry it through? How much and what kind of support do you need to carry it through?

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to practicing the presentation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Practicing a presentation reduces spontaneity and usually reduces the ability to connect with the audience.

b. Most people do not devote a sufficiently high a portion of the total preparation time for a presentation to rehearsing its delivery.

c. Benefits of practicing a presentation include discovering awkward phrases and tongue-twisters that you did not notice when writing and editing.

d. Benefits of practicing a presentation include gauging the timing and reducing nervousness since rehearsing even one time will improve your confidence in your material.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to pre-speech warmups choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Exercises before speaking can improve a presentation or speech.

b. Warm up is unnecessary for presentations in a small room or for audiences of less than 6 people.

c. Good speech takes muscle and just as your leg muscles work better if you warm them up before a run, so will your speech muscles work better if you warm them up.

d. Longer warm-ups can include stretching and breathing exercises followed by reading selected word sequences.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to body language and posture choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Body language (non-verbal expression) is a powerful form of communication and a speaker’s posture influences not only the listener’s assessment of the speaker, but also the behaviour of the speaker.

b. Never try to “fake it” when adopting a pose that presents you in a more powerful position.

c. Eye contact conveys confidence.

d. Engage with your face.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to voice projection and volume choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Projecting one’s voice at the appropriate volume enhances one’s effectiveness as a speaker.

b. Find a volume that everyone can hear and stick to it.

c. Vary the volume throughout because speaking for any length of time at the same volume (whether loud or soft) puts people to sleep.

d. Emphasize target words or phrases by speaking louder or softer (as appropriate) and mirror emotional content with volume changes.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to speech pauses choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. If you do pauses right, nobody is conscious of them, but your ideas are communicated more persuasively.

b. If you do pauses wrong, your credibility is weakened, and your audience struggles to comprehend your message.

c. Appropriate lengths for pauses (from a fraction of second to several seconds or more) will vary considerably based on your speaking style, the nature of your message, the duration of your talk, your audience, and cultural norms.

d. Pauses should be used consistently so that, for example, comma pauses (however long they are) should be shorter than paragraph pauses.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.10.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to eliminating filler words choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Filler words such as um, uh, and you know are natural and add authenticity to presentations.

b. Persuasive speakers avoid using filler words.

c. Repeated and excessive use of fillers weakens your credibility, because it may be perceived as indicating lack of preparation, lack of knowledge, or lack of passion.

d. Fillers are inserted when our brain needs a moment to catch up to our mouth so to avoid fillers, raise your level of preparation, and/or slow your pace to make it easier for your brain to keep up.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 11 – Leadership

CCQ1007.11.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to skills and tacit knowledge choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Skill is the ability to do something that comes from training, experience, or practice.

b. Tacit knowledge is precise and can be described textbooks, procedures and manuals.

c. We know things that we cannot explain; we cannot explain everything we know.

d. Tacit knowledge plays a crucial role in skills acquisition.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Kouzes’ and Posner’s leadership model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The model states that leadership is not about personality; it’s about behavior, an observable set of skills and abilities.

b. The model states that the most effective leaders are those that are able to quickly adapt their style to the situation and recognize cues for required change.

c. The model states that that leaders should establish principles concerning the way people should be treated and the way goals should be pursued.

d. The model emphasizes that leaders should inspire a shared vision and enable others to act

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the situational theory of leadership choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The situational theory of leadership suggests that no single leadership style is “best” – the type of leadership and strategies that are best-suited to the task depends on the situation at hand.

b. According to this theory, the most effective leaders are those that are able to adapt their style to the situation and look at cues such as the type of task, the nature of the group, and other factors that might contribute to getting the job done.

c. Effective leaders must base their behaviour on the developmental level of group members for specific tasks, where the developmental level is determined by each individual’s level of competence and commitment

d. An effective leader will match his or her behavior to the developmental skill of each subordinate for the task at hand.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the trait theory of leadership choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The trait theory of leadership focuses on identifying different personality traits and characteristics that are linked to successful leadership across a variety of situations.

b. Traits commonly associated with great leadership include intelligence and creativity.

c. Traits commonly associated with great leadership include people skills and the capacity to motivate.

d. Traits commonly associated with great leadership include courage, resolution, perseverance, decisiveness, and assertiveness.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to trust choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Trust is belief that someone or something is reliable, good, honest, and effective.

b. Within organizations, things that undermine trust include inconsistent messages, inconsistent standards, false feedback, rumours in a vacuum, and consistent organizational underperformance.

c. Advice on how to build trust include talking straight, demonstrating respect, and creating transparency.

d. Trust is particularly important outside vertical, power-based, environments where a key success factor in leadership becomes the ability to persuade someone over whom you have no power to collaborate with you in pursuit of a common mission.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to UK Civil Service Leadership Statement 2015 choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Civil Service Leadership Statement was released by the UK Cabinet Office in February 2015 following a year of consultation and is intended to reflect the positive attributes that civil servants want to see in their leaders and their own approach to leadership.

b. The Civil Service Leadership Statement admonishes civil servant leaders to be inspiring, confident, and empowering.

c. The Civil Service Leadership Statement is intended to reflect the positive attributes that civil servants want to see in their leaders and their own approach to leadership.

d. The Statement challenges leaders to hold a mirror up to their own behaviours, to be honest about areas they are falling short in, and to take appropriate action to address them.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Williams’ distinction between real and counterfeit leadership choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Real leadership gets people to face the reality and engage the group to do adaptive work.

b. Counterfeit leadership occurs when group members may not have the necessary knowledge or expertise to make quality contributions to the decision-making process.

c. Counterfeit leadership is indicated by a preoccupation with dominance and an unwillingness to explore beyond one’s comfort zone to find a solution.

d. Real leadership is the willingness to be responsible and involves the pursuit of wisdom.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the autocratic leadership style, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The autocratic leadership style involves authoritarian control over a group.

b. People who abuse an autocratic leadership style are often viewed as bossy, controlling, and dictatorial, which can lead to resentment among group members.

c. Autocratic leadership is a leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group members.

d. Autocratic leadership should be avoided as it is never an effective leadership style.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the participative leadership style, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Group members are encouraged to share ideas and opinions, even though the leader retains the final say over decisions.

b. The leader is charged with deciding who is in the group and who gets to contribute to the decisions that are made.

c. Participative leadership can lead to communication failures and uncompleted projects.

d. Participative leadership is most effective in situations where group members are highly skilled, motivated, and capable of working on their own.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.11.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pfeffer’s management BS critique choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pfeffer argues that corporate-leadership seminars are usually a good investment in producing better leaders.

b. Pfeffer argues that the leadership industry has not been successful partly because its recommendations are based on an ideal world, rather than on the real world.

c. Pfeffer’s book points to the ways in which leadership prescriptions have actually been problematic for leaders and proved themselves to be counterproductive.

d. Pfeffer claims that the general perception of what makes a good leader has resulted in an enormous disconnect between what actually makes individuals successful and what we think makes them successful.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Week 12 – Operating Skills for Internship

CCQ1007.12.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term orienting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An individual who is oriented can identify and create opportunities to initiate new connections that will facilitate the achievement of strategic goals within an area.

b. An individual who is oriented understands the relationships, concerns and agendas of key people, and decisions made inside and outside of their own work group.

c. Orienting is defined as seeking an expression of assent from others for something you propose.

d. Orienting is defined as positioning with respect to a reference system or determining your bearings physically or intellectually.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to briefing and minimizing surprises choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Briefing can be defined as the art of informing your client first and then informing yourself.

b. Briefing yourself is bound to be different from briefing others.

c. One of the crucial challenges in briefing is the admonition of No Surprises.

d. No superior or colleague likes to be surprised, especially in the presence of others, about a fact that a subordinate is aware of or an action the subordinate is undertaking.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term deadlining choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Deadlines are requirements for given sorts of action at set times.

b. Deadlining can be defined as meeting your commitments.

c. Deadlines help to force actions through channels they are to be ridden by those seeking action and ducked by those seeking the opposite.

d. Some deadlines, not all, can be brought into being at will; some can be advanced in time, some can be postponed, some can be strengthened, some weakened, some cancelled, some evaded.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to becoming self-aware choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Anthony Tjan, writing in the HBR, says that his research finds that self-awareness the “one quality that trumps all, evident in virtually every great entrepreneur, manager, and leaders” and advises that the “best thing leaders can do to improve their effectiveness is to become more aware of what motivates them and their decision-making.”

b. Spending your time and resources on events you have control over is essential for becoming self-aware.

c. Self-awareness is about understanding your own needs, desires, failings, habits, and everything else that makes you tick.

d. Being self-aware allows you to understand other people, how they perceive you, your attitude and your responses to them in the moment.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to developing resilience choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Resilience is the ability to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change and developing resilience is important for effective self management.

b. Indicators of resilience include following through on commitments and making promises that can be kept.

c. Resilient people view a difficulty as a challenge, not as a paralyzing event, and they look at their failures and mistakes as lessons to be learned from, and as opportunities for growth.

d. Resilient people have a positive image of the future – they maintain a positive outlook, and envision brighter days ahead.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to having fun at work choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Actions to promote having fun at the workplace need to be endorsed at the corporate level.

b. We get an emotional reward from interacting harmoniously with others.

c. One goal in managing oneself is to find professional assignments and colleagues where one can have fun at work.

d. Working with interesting colleagues and working on intellectually challenging problems activate the “happiness hormones” in your brain.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to managing stress choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Hans Selye, one of the founding fathers of stress research, described stress as not necessarily something bad – the stress of exhilarating, creative successful work is beneficial, while that of failure, humiliation or infection is detrimental.

b. An important goal in managing oneself is maintain work-related stress to levels that do not jeopardize one’s health and effectiveness.

c. Tips for reducing stress include physical activity, relaxation techniques, and getting more sleep.

d. Tips for reducing stress include taking control, learning to say no, and managing your time.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to managing time choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One method of counteracting priority dilution involves having a strategy in place for saying no in advance.

b. Time management, or prioritization, is the way that one organizes and plans how long to spend on specific activities.

c. A tip for effective time-management is to ask yourself, “How can I use my time today in ways that create more time tomorrow?”

d. A tip for effective time-management is to speed up the implementation of all tasks.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to taking responsibility choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Taking responsibility involves accepting personal accountability for one’s actions and commitments.

b. It is crucial to distinguish between which aspect of your life are the responsibility of others and which parts are totally your own responsibility.

c. Indicators of taking responsibility are: following through on commitments and only making promises that can be kept.

d. A foundation principle for success and happiness in life and work is that “you are totally responsible for your life.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ1007.12.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to power laws, Pareto distributions, and performance choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A power law is a functional relationship between two quantities, where a relative change in one quantity results in a proportional relative change in the other quantity, independent of the initial size of those quantities; one quantity varies as a power of another.

b. One type of power law distribution is the Pareto distribution, sometimes expressed as the Pareto principle or the “80-20 rule” which says that 20% of the population is associated with 80% of the populations’ X where X could, for example, be wealth or output.

c. Different values of the coefficients in a Pareto distribution will produce a “90-10 rule” or a “70-30 rule.”

d. The distribution of performance in many fields does not follow a normal distribution but appears to be closer to a power law distribution.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Page created by: Ian Clark, last updated 7 November 2017.

Image: Doug Savage (copyright 2009), SavageChickens.com, from LearnDash, Why Multiple-Choice Only Quizzes Suck, at https://www.learndash.com/why-multiple-choice-only-quizzes-suck/, accessed 17 April 2017.