Quiz 9 – Forty Concepts in Implementation and Delivery

… an Atlas quiz for Atlas206 Internship Reading

implementation2Concept comprehension questions on
Forty Concepts in Implementation and Delivery

Note: All 15 quizzes for Atlas206 Internship Reading are available at Concept Quizzes for Atlas206 Internship Reading.

CCQ206.09.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to implementation vs policy design choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. It is possible to have good design and poor implementation but not good implementation with poor design since design precedes implementation.

b. A well-designed policy with good implementation is almost a definition of success – a good idea well executed.

c. Implementation and policy design are conceptually distinct, though they overlap in practice – design is the blueprint for the policy and implementation is its execution.

d. The smart designer builds considerations about implementation into the policy design from the beginning.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to implementation theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The conventional work on implementation has tended to highlight its multidimensionality, difficulty, ambiguity, and a growing realization of its importance.

b. The factors that we consider to be important in implementation depend on the way in which we perceive governance.

c. Like much else in policymaking, the practical world of implementation has not changed in recent years.

d. Implementation can be viewed primarily as a political process of bargaining among actors who, while not necessarily equal in resources, can each affect outcomes.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pressman and Wildavsky’s implementation model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Pressman-Wildavsky implementation model features a chain of statistically independent nodes or clearance points with an attached probability.

b. The implementation process is marked by a sequence of tasks that have to be completed or agreements struck before the process can move on.

c. The Pressman-Wildavsky model assumes a 99 percent probability of agreement on each clearance point in the implementation process.

d. Clearance points are not always independent; they might be packaged or bundled in ways so that one clearance ripples through several others.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Hogwood and Gunn’s elements for successful implementation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Hogwood and Gunn enumerated the presumed requirements that are implicit in idealized models of implementation.

b. Hogwood and Gunn’s presumed requirements include agreed objectives, adequate time, and sufficient resources.

c. Hogwood and Gunn’s presumed requirements include valid theory, causal connections that are reasonable and direct, and compliance without sabotage or rebellion.

d. Hogwood and Gunn conclude that, given the unrealistic nature of the presumed requirements, perfect implementation almost never happens and that some degree of failure is almost inevitable.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Sabatier and Muzmanian’s framework of the implementation process choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Sabatier and Mazmanian include many of the same variables as Hogwood and Gunn.

b. Sabatier and Mazmanian include legislative and institutional variables, for example, the statute should be clear, and the implementing agency well resourced.

c. Sabatier and Mazmanian include socio-economic and political variables that determine the fate of implementation and these overlap in part with forces that serve to maintain the sense in the public and the political system that the problem to which the policy is being directed is important and requires attention.

d. Sabatier and Mazmanian conclude that the chances of successful implementation are maximized if there are clear objectives, sympathetic agencies, authority, resources, fidelity to statute and rules, leadership, and public support.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Bardach’s implementation game choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bardach uses the notion of games as a way of understanding the essentially defensive nature of implementation.

b. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that rely on complex management systems, large organizations, and multiple clearances.

c. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that work through the market because the dynamics of the public and private spheres are fundamentally at odds.

d. Bardach’s strategies include engaging in scenario-writing to work out different possible consequences of a string of actions and interactions.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Eggers and O’Leary’s project management framework for implementation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Eggers and O’Leary propose that implementers adopt a project management mindset or discipline.

b. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommendations include setting goals and timelines and breaking large projects and initiatives into more manageable chunks that are less complex and less risky.

c. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommendations include identifying stakeholders and their needs and expectations and developing a change management strategy to increase support.

d. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommend seeking out leading edge technology to stay ahead of the implementation curve.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to principal-agent problem choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The principal-agent problem is what develops when a principal creates an environment in which an agent’s incentives don’t align with its own.

b. Much of the principal-agent problem has to do with information asymmetry and incentives.

c. The onus is on the agent to create incentives for the principal to ensure they act as the agent wants.

d. An example of the principle-agent problem is when the agent knows more than the typical principle, and the agent has the ability to charge at their own discretion.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public choice theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public choice transfers the rational actor model of economic theory to the realm of politics.

b. Public choice theory tries to determine the behavioural choice of the public if the public behaved as a rational actor.

c. Public choice, like the economic model of rational behavior on which it rests, assumes that people are guided chiefly by their own self-interests.

d. Public choice theory is the application of the theories and methods of economics to the analysis of political behavior.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Allison’s three models of government action choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1969 article, Conceptual models and the Cuban Missile Crisis, Graham Allison set out three models or lenses for analyzing government action.

b. Model 1 suggests that the state acts as a unitary rational actor to make decisions.

c. Model 2 suggests that the sub-units of the state act according to pre-determined procedures to produce an output and the government can only dictate policy options that are already in the standard operating procedures.

d. Model 3 suggests that those in charge of various state responsibilities make predictable arguments based on their present position with policy outcomes being the result of negotiations among these leaders.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Fayol’s theory of administration choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The administrative theory expounded by Henri Fayol (1841-1925) encompassed five functions of management – planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, controlling – and was summarized in 14 principles of management.

b. Fayol’s principles of management included division of work, authority and responsibility, discipline, unity of command, subordination, and centralization.

c. Fayol’s principles of management included fair remuneration, equity, initiative, and esprit de corps.

d. Fayol’s principles of management included technological innovation, transparency, and accountability.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Niskanen’s budget maximizing model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The budget maximizing model developed by William Niskanen in the 1970s argued that rational bureaucrats will always and everywhere seek to increase their budgets in order to increase their own power, thereby contributing strongly to state growth and potentially reducing social efficiency.

b. The model contemplates a bureaucrat who heads a public administration department, and who will try to maximize the department’s budget, thus increasing its salary and prestige.

c. The legislature, or Government, defines the department’s budget, depending on the quantity which it supplies, and the more services the department supplies, the higher will its budget be.

d. Niskanen’s model says that, as in a typical private-sector utility maximizing model, the department would expand services (and budgets) to the point that the marginal cost and marginal benefits are equated.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Downs’ typology of officials choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1964 article, Inside Bureaucracy, Anthony Downs sets out five types of government officials.

b. Downs’ five types of government officials include climbers, conservers, and advocates.

c. Downs’ five types of government officials include zealots and statesmen.

d. Downs suggested three key determinants of an official’s type: psychological predispositions; the nature of the position occupied by the official; and the probability that an official actually attain the goals associated with the particular type toward which he is psychologically inclined.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s good governance benchmarks choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Leslie Pal concludes his book, Beyond Policy Analysis, with a set of suggested benchmarks of good governance that he believes will not guarantee good policy design but will certainly contribute to it.

b. Pal’s benchmarks include training of policy development staff, well-organized information and research resources, and a balance of scanning and service orientations.

c. Pal’s benchmarks include horizontal coordination, rigour and honesty, and transparency and consultation.

d. Pal concludes that if the benchmarks in b. and c. are in place then there will be little need for a challenge function.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the crucial role of communication choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. To maintain the integrity of an evidence-based approach to policy analysis, it is crucial to distinguish the objective function of policy design from the subjective function of policy communication.

b. Policy is inseparable from communication, which is the lubricant for every phase of the cycle.

c. Public policy is not only made; it is sold, and sold to a large number of disparate and different audiences.

d. Complementing the logic of arguments is the art of issue framing, a deliberate technique for depicting a policy issue in understandable terms.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to consulting stakeholders and engaging citizens choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. With consultations, the challenge is balancing public demands with the realities of hard decisions.

b. Policymakers genuinely believe that consultation in policy design and partnership in policy delivery are important aspects of their jobs.

c. The shift to “engagement” from “consultation” has become possible because of the increasing trust that citizens have toward government.

d. Consultation is usually focused on the operational and programmatic level, as opposed to broad values or directions for policy development.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Dunn’s four-stage process of communicating policy-relevant knowledge choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. William Dunn argues that the communication of policy-relevant knowledge is a four-stage process consisting of policy analysis, materials development, interaction, and knowledge utilization.

b. Dunn argues that the policy analyst is at the centre of the cycle and supporting each stage, though only indirectly when it comes to knowledge utilization.

c. Dunn puts a strong emphasis on the range of techniques available for everything from problem definition to recommendations (including cost-benefit analysis), time series analysis, and the structure of policy arguments.

d. For Dunn, the knowledge utilization stage includes agenda-setting, policy formulation, policy adoption, policy implementation, and policy assessment.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term policy issue paper choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy issue paper is best thought of as the functional equivalent of an executive summary of a policy memorandum.

b. A policy issue paper is a relatively lengthy, detailed, and technical analyses of a policy problem, with consideration of options and recommendations.

c. A typical question addressed in a policy issue paper is “in what ways can the policy problem be formulated?”

d. A typical question addressed in a policy issue paper is “what goals and objectives should be pursued in solving the problem?”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the role of ideas in policy making choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The stream of work in the policy sciences that emphasizes the role of ideas claims that there are no such things as “facts” or “reality.”

b. Ideas are not merely individual biases, but collective ideational frameworks that help policy analysts, decisionmakers, and other actors make sense of the world.

c. A policy paradigm is a framework of ideas and standards that specifies not only the goals of policy and the kind of instruments that can be used to attain them, but also the very nature of the problems they are meant to be addressing.

d. Depending on how deep these ideas are buried, and how fundamental they are for our interpretation of the world, they may not even be noticed.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to postmodernist policy analysis choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The postmodernist policy analysis is also known as post-positivist, or constructivist analysis of policy design and implementation.

b. The postmodernist approach argues that our ideas, our beliefs, our norms, even our language, structure perception so deeply that we can perceive only hard facts.

c. For postmodernists, embracing the rational model means elevating experts, which, in turn, means choking democracy or the meaningful participation of non-expert, ordinary citizens.

d. For postmodernists, the categories of thought behind reasoned analysis are themselves constructed in political struggle, and nonviolent political conflict is conducted primarily through reasoned analysis, which means that reasoned analysis is necessarily political.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.21. Among the statements a-d pertaining to symbolic representation and narrative choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy communication is not only about analysis, but about persuasion through language and rhetorical strategies, whether deliberate or through unconscious art and instinct.

b. Deborah Stone highlights four modes of symbolic representation: narrative stories, synechdoches, metaphors, and ambiguity.

c. Narratives are stories that draw on the tropes of deep human experience: decline, loss, survival, triumph.

d. Synechdoche is the representation of the whole by a part or by a single instance such as representing disability, which has many dimensions, by an image of a person in a wheelchair.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.22. Among the statements a-d pertaining to media bias and agenda setting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public policy is shaped and fashioned by a host of actors – ordinary citizens, politicians, public officials, think tanks, academic institutions, government relations experts, nongovernmental organizations – but debates over policy rarely take place directly, and most citizens get exposed to these debates through the media, typically television news, magazines, newspapers, and so on.

b. A relevant question is whether these media simply and faithfully channel those debates to the public, or whether they have their own biases and agendas, and consequently an independent effect by shaping how people think about policy issues.

c. Recent research suggests that the agenda-setting power of the media has been somewhat exaggerated.

d. There is no analytic basis for the concern that modern media, especially television, operate on a logic that is rapidly dumbing down the citizenry and eroding public trust and civic engagement.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.23. Among the statements a-d pertaining to communication nudges and behavioural economics choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The brain’s automatic system is quick and feels instinctive, whereas the reflective system is more self-conscious and calculating.

b. Richard Thaler and Cass Sunstein argue for communications mechanisms that will reduce biases and allow people to make more effective decisions.

c. If people are given the choice of donating when the amounts on offer are $100, $200, and $300, they will tend to donate more than if the choice is $50, $75, or $100.

d. Since human beings make errors, there should be feedback mechanisms to let them know something is going wrong.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.24. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s comparison of academic and policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Academic research usually explores theoretical issues and is curiosity driven while public policy research usually addresses a real-world problem and is aimed at finding solutions that work.

b. Whereas academic research is usually subject to deadlines such as those imposed by granting agencies or publishers, public policy research is not subject to such artificial limits and takes as long as needed to get the answer right.

c. Academic research is usually conducted in universities or think tanks while policy research can be conducted within government, and outside in think tanks, NGOs, businesses and media organizations.

d. The audience for academic research is typically other academics, experts, and specialists in the field while the audience for policy research is typically government officials, both senior appointed and elected, and the broad, interested public.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.25. Among the statements a-d pertaining to doing nothing as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Failing to act on a perceived policy problem is sure sign of lack of policy capacity.

b. Problem-related rationales can occur when there is either no problem after all or a problem not within the government’s current priorities, jurisdiction, or capacities.

c. Rationales comprise a coherent set of considerations that should be part of any systematic process of instrument choice, even though doing nothing does not seem intuitively to fit the notion of an instrument or tool.

d. A deliberate choice not to intervene, made after an analysis of the problem, should be considered a policy decision – what is called a static response.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.26. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using information-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A key principle behind information-based instruments is that human behaviour is largely based on knowledge, beliefs, and values.

b. Information-based instruments are considered the most coercive of all policy instruments.

c. Information-based policy instruments can include flyers, pamphlets, booklets, training, advertisements, reports, websites, and portals.

d. Information-based policy instruments comprise government-directed attempts at influencing people through transfer of knowledge, and communication of reasoned argument.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.27. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using expenditure-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. With expenditure-based policy instruments, governments are not trying to achieve their objectives or outcomes by changing the information that undergirds behaviour, but rather the calculus of costs, benefits, and financial resources.

b. In Canadian usage, contributions are similar to grants but with fewer conditions attached.

c. Expenditure instruments pose substantial management challenges in terms of ensuring that conditions are met and monies are spent appropriately.

d. From the policymaker’s point of view, virtually every policy instrument involves expenditure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.28. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using taxation-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Tax expenditures accomplish much the same thing as contributions or subsidies, but through the mechanism of reducing taxes for specific activities and thereby increasing the benefits.

b. A tax used as a policy instrument and not simply to raise revenue is a device to make targeted behaviours more expensive and hence, less attractive.

c. Through user charges and service fees, special benefits enjoyed by only a minority of citizens are paid for in whole or in part by that minority.

d. Tax expenditures are attractive for many governments because, with cash-based accounting, they do not affect the deficit.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.29. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using regulation-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Regulation draws on the most fundamental resource a government has – its capacity to command and prohibit.

b. Affirmative/promoting uses of regulation include permissions, licences, recognitions, and self-regulation.

c. Regulatory instruments are used to define norms, acceptable behavior, or to limit activities in a given society.

d. A species of regulation is government-sanctioned self-regulation, where the state delegates its regulatory power not to a state agency but to a nongovernmental organization or association, for example a professional body.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.30. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using direct provision as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Any service directly provided by government, from garbage collection to education, will involve the expenditure of often substantial amounts of money.

b. Direct provision draws on the most fundamental resource a government has: its capacity to command and prohibit.

c. Direct provision is less an alternative to spending money than it is a means of spending money that reflects a different policy logic.

d. Governments can decide to achieve the conditions or service goals they have in mind by marshalling their own resources toward those ends.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.31. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using partnership as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Partnership can be defined as the pattern of relations among members of the policy community.

b. If partnerships are conceived of as a policy instrument, then they will not simply appear; they will have to be created.

c. An interesting and new example of creative partnerships are social impact bonds, where government social service agencies issue the bonds, which are bought by private investors.

d. The basic logic is that government can either get out of some of the things that it has traditionally done and leave them to the private or nonprofit sectors, or it can continue to do those things in partnerships with those sectors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.32. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using internationalization as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Department of Global Affairs tries to coordinate foreign policy issues at the national level.

b. It is not simply a matter of single policy fields being projected upward to the international level but linkages across policy fields being developed by international agencies and communities of practice.

c. International agreements and international negotiations are becoming a routine instrument in the pursuit of domestic policy.

d. With the internationalization of so many policy fields, the organization of the foreign policy dossier calls for the centralization of a single foreign affairs department to take issues from all other policy fields.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.33. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using procedural and institutional policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational instruments take the state itself – its structure and management – as a target of public policy.

b. Governments increasingly come to rely on the use of a different set of procedural tools designed to indirectly affect outcomes through the manipulation of policy processes.

c. Sustainable governance involves a combination of governmental and nongovernmental institutions, processes, instruments, and actors, it entails more than simply a question of instrument choice.

d. Instruments are aimed less at delivery of policy and programs than at the restructuring of relationships either within the state or between the state and social partners.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.34. Among the statements a-d pertaining to network targets choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizations and individuals should be granted high levels of autonomy and legitimacy as policy actors in their own right, not merely as recipients of government programs.

b. This approach requires a greater tolerance for potential failure and the possibility that partners will both make mistakes and have to learn from them.

c. The role of government is to facilitate and empower rather than to deliver and direct.

d. Policy instruments in this category have the character of mandates rather than inducements.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.35. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy community choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy community can be defined as the actors in a policy network, presumably those who share at least some common language and conceptual reference points but who may be opponents on the issue.

b. Policy communities are groupings of government agencies, pressure groups, media people, and individuals, including academics, who, for various reasons, have an interest in a particular policy field and attempt to influence it.

c. Paul Pross argued that most of the inside players in a policy community try to keep debate within the realm of the technical and routine, and that the attentive public are the outsiders whose main influence on the process is to generate ideas and discussion through conferences, publications, and occasional lobbying.

d. In Pross’s view, the policy community is actually an insulating device to keep a grip on the process.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.36. Among the statements a-d pertaining to advocacy coalitions choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A distinctive feature of the advocacy coalition framework proposed by Paul Sabatier is its emphasis on the role of ideas and values in the policy process.

b. The first element in the belief system – very difficult to change through policy arguments – is the deep or normative core, which consists of fundamental axioms about human nature, justice, and priorities among values such as security, health, and life.

c. The second set of ideas is the near (policy) core, and it comprises notions about the proper scope of government activity, distributions of power and authority, orientations on substantive policy conflicts, and basic choices about policy instruments. These are difficult to change but can be altered if experience seriously differs from theory.

d. The final set contains secondary aspects and consists of instrumental decisions needed to implement the policy core, such as decisions about administrative rules, budgetary allocations, and statutory interpretation. These are comparatively easy to shift or change and constitute the bulk of technical policy argumentation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.37. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy networks choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy network can be defined as the pattern of relations among members of the policy community.

b. The importance of policy networks and communities continues to grow but the realities of the policy process continue to change the nature and dynamic of those communities.

c. Networks are important today not only because they represent interests that have to be integrated into the policy process, or information that is crucial to analysis, or even important loci of opposition, but because they are important sinews for implementation and delivery.

d. Networks are based on formal agreements about objectives, resource sharing, and coordinating procedures.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.38. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Kernaghan’s classification of partnerships choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In an operational partnership the money or other forms of support for projects is managed by a third party.

b. In a consultative partnership there is active exchanging of advice and information.

c. In an collaborative partnership there is a sharing of both work and decision-making.

d. Partnerships can be a means of improving service delivery, getting better feedback, and encouraging civic engagement.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.39. Among the statements a-d pertaining to partnerships and horizontal management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Horizontal management is the best way to approach every policy issue, since it encourages collaboration between all government departments.

b. It is best to think of horizontal management as a continuum running from a minimalist to a maximalist level of coordination.

c. Governments around the world are increasingly concerned with policy coherence and developing horizontality.

d. Interest in horizontality is extending to all levels of government bureaucracy, with the growing expectation that government departments will work more closely and collaboratively.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.40. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public-private partnership models choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A public-private partnership is a cooperative venture between the public and private sectors, built on the expertise of each partner, that best meets clearly defined public needs through the appropriate allocation of resources, risks and rewards.

b. In the Finance-Only model, a private entity, usually a financial services company, funds a project directly or uses various mechanisms such as a long-term lease or bond issue.

c. In the Design-Build-Finance-Maintain-Operate model, the private sector designs, builds, and finances an asset, provides hard and/or soft facility management services as well as operations under a long-term agreement.

d. In the Concession model, a private sector concessionaire undertakes investments and operates the facility for a fixed period of time after which the ownership reverts back to the public sector.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Page created by: Ian Clark, last modified on 21 May 2017.

Image: University of Tartu, MA Programme in Democracy and Governance, at http://www.rti.ut.ee/en/admissions/ma-programme-democracy-and-governance, accessed 10 December 2015.