Concept Quizzes for Atlas206 Internship Reading

… concept comprehension questions for Atlas206 Internship Reading

Purpose and coverage

This page provides concept comprehension questions in the form of 15 weekly quizzes for the material in Internship Reading and Atlas206 Internship Reading.

The table below provides links to individual quizzes.

Below the table all 315 questions from the 15 quizzes are listed on the remainder of this (long) page. The number of questions in each quiz is indicated in parenthesis.

Links to weekly quizzes
Quiz 1 – Getting Oriented (6)

Quiz 2 – Working in Organizations (9)

Quiz 3 – Building Resources (6)

Quiz 4 – Persuading (22)

Quiz 5 – Writing to Persuade (15)

Quiz 6 – Speaking to Persuade (14)

Quiz 7 – Fifty Concepts in Governance and Institutions (50)

Quiz 8 – Twenty Concepts in Policy Analysis and Process (20)

Quiz 9 – Forty Concepts in Implementation and Delivery (40)

Quiz 10 – Fifty Concepts in Economic Analysis (50)

Quiz 11 – Thirty Concepts in Quant, Macro, Social, Global, Eval, and Ethics (30)

Quiz 12 – The Study of Leadership and Communication (13)

Quiz 13 – Recognizing Values and Managing Oneself (13)

Quiz 14 – Diagnosing and Strategizing (16)

Quiz 15 – Negotiating and Handling Complexity (11)

All quiz questions

Quiz for Week 1: Getting Oriented (6 questions)

CCQ206.01.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term orienting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An individual who is oriented can identify and create opportunities to initiate new connections that will facilitate the achievement of strategic goals within own area.

b. An individual who is oriented understands the relationships, concerns and agendas of key people, and decisions made inside and outside of their own work group.

c. Orienting is defined as seeking an expression of assent from others for something you propose.

d. Orienting is defined as positioning with respect to a reference system or determining your bearings physically or intellectually.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.01.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term networking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Networking should consist of give-and-take relationships.

b. Successful networking involves making it a personal practice to view every situation – both inside and outside of the work environment – as an opportunity to meet new people.

c. Networking is the ongoing process of cultivating and maintaining relationships with a diverse network of individuals and organisations who share a common set of principles and values.

d. Networking is the process of intentionally meeting people, making contacts, and forming relationships in hopes of gaining access to such business-related benefits as career advice, job leads, business referrals, useful information and ideas, and emotional support.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.01.03. Among statements a-d pertaining to organization chart choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An organization chart is a diagram that illustrates the structure of an organization.

b. An organization chart can also be called an organizational chart, an org chart, or an organogram.

c. An organization chart illustrates the relationships and relative ranks of its business units or divisions, and the positions or roles assigned to each unit or division.

d. An organization chart is unlikely to be useful without the names of the people occupying the boxes on the chart.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.01.04. Among statements a-d pertaining to organization structure types choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. There are three main types of organizational structure and one of them will be optimal for a particular organizational mission and culture.

b. A functional structure is set up so that each portion of the organization is grouped according to its purpose, with the potential drawback that the coordination and communication between departments can be restricted by the organizational boundaries of having the various departments working separately.

c. A divisional (or regional) structure is used in organizations that operate in a wide geographic area and have separate smaller organizations (e.g., regional offices) to cover a range of services within the region, with the potential drawback of increasing costs and reducing consistency of service across regions.

d. A matrix structure is a hybrid of regional and functional structure and allows for the benefits of functional and regional structures to exist in one organization but the drawback of having dual reporting structures

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.01.05. Among statements a-d pertaining to the government program choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Government of Canada defines a program as a group of related resource inputs and activities that are managed to meet specific needs and to achieve intended results, and that are treated as a budgetary unit.

b. Each program has a budget that is described in a document (e.g., Estimates) before being authorized by the legislature.

c. Some government programs are disaggregated into sub-programs and some of these can be further disaggregated into sub-sub-programs, each of which has a specific budget, and is delivered by a specific institutional unit headed by a responsible manager.

d. For management purposes is more useful and precise to specify programs in terms of outputs and outcomes than in terms of financial costs and delivery units.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.01.06. Among statements a-d pertaining to the Estimates choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. For governments in the Westminster tradition, Estimates publications explain how organizations plan to spend funds.

b. Estimates publications explain how federal organizations plan to spend funds. The Main Estimates and Supplementary Estimates provide information on spending authority that Parliament will be asked to approve during the fiscal year.

c. In Canada, individual departments and agencies also produce Reports on Plans and Priorities (RPPs) and The RPPs are typically tabled soon after the Main Estimates and show an organization’s priorities and planned results for the next three years. DPRs, tabled in the fall, are accounts of results achieved during the most recent fiscal year.

d. In Canada, Departmental Performance Reports (DPRs) are an integral part of the Estimates process as specified in the Parliament of Canada Act.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

Quiz for Week 2: Working in Organizations (9 questions)

CCQ206.02.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term honesty choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Honesty is a facet of moral character that connotes positive and virtuous attributes.

b. The need for honesty is woven throughout the primary activities of effective leaders.

c. Ethical behaviour in social settings, including working in organizations, does not include the expectation that one should tell the whole truth and nothing but the truth at all times in all circumstances.

d. A key characteristic of an honest leader is one who recognizes, respects and values the differences among colleagues and clients.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term dependability choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Dependability is being able to be trusted to do or provide what is needed.

b. An individual who is dependable is able to deal well with new or difficult situations and to find solutions to problems

c. Undependable behaviours do not build trust or help one work effectively in an organization.

d. Indicators of dependability include: completing work in a timely manner and meeting commitments with little oversight.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term resourcefulness choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An individual who demonstrates resourcefulness gets the job done by doing whatever it takes within an appropriate time frame.

b. Resourcefulness is being able to deal well with new or difficult situations and to find solutions to problems.

c. An individual who demonstrates resourcefulness anticipates critical issues and requirements to help set appropriate work objectives.

d. An individual who demonstrates resourcefulness believes and assumes the best in others.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term respectfulness choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Respectfulness is a facet of moral character that connotes positive and virtuous attributes such as integrity, truthfulness, and straightforwardness, along with the absence of lying, cheating, or theft.

b. A person who demonstrates respectfulness treats all people with dignity.

c. A person who demonstrates respectfulness identifies and works to develop the relevant skills, knowledge and behaviours to work effectively with the differences among individual staff and clients.

d. Respectfulness is a courteous regard for people’s feelings.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term friendliness choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An individual who demonstrates friendliness has the ability to keep one’s emotions under control and restrain negative actions when faced with opposition or hostility from others or when working under stress.

b. An individual who demonstrates friendliness seeks best practices inside and outside the organisation to anticipate change.

c. A reputation for friendliness can be defined as a feeling of liking for another person; enjoyment in their company.

d. An individual who demonstrates friendliness has the ability to hear accurately and understand unspoken, partly expressed thoughts, feelings and concerns of others.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term punctuality choose the one that is most valid or choose e if none are reasonably valid.

a. Punctuality is a rather minor behaviour rarely mentioned in lists of expected organizational behaviours.

b. Punctuality can be is defined as able to be trusted to do or provide what is needed.

c. Punctuality can be defined as the quality or habit of adhering to an appointed time.

d. Punctuality can be defined as positioning with respect to a reference system or determining your bearings physically or intellectually.

e. None of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to briefing and minimizing surprises choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Briefing can be defined as the art of informing your client first and then informing yourself.

b. Briefing yourself is bound to be different from briefing others.

c. One of the crucial challenges in briefing is the admonition of No Surprises.

d. No superior or colleague likes to be surprised, especially in the presence of others, about a fact that a subordinate is aware of or an action the subordinate is undertaking.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term clearing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Clearing can be done through coalition-building, a search for viable consensus among allies.

b. Clearing has been defined as seeking an expression of assent from others for something you propose.

c. Compliance with procedures and binding your position, is an example of clearing.

d. A person who demonstrates clearing has the ability to keep one’s emotions under control and restrain negative actions when faced with opposition.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.02.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term deadlining choose the one that is

a. Deadlines are requirements for given sorts of action at set times.

b. Deadlining can be defined as meeting your commitments.

c. Deadlines help to force actions through channels they are to be ridden by those seeking action and ducked by those seeking the opposite.

d. Some deadlines, not all, can be brought into being at will; some can be advanced in time, some can be postponed, some can be strengthened, some weakened, some cancelled, some evaded.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 3: Building Resources (6 questions)

CCQ206.03.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to identifying allies choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Ask known allies to list several other groups who are either already working on the issue or who might be interested in helping.

b. The next question to ask is which potential allies cares about the issue enough to want to help the project.

c. The easiest way to start recruiting allies is to determine if there are already groups working on the issue, who might be interested in becoming involved with the project.

d. One way to prioritize the list of potential allies is to rank them by the amount of power that they could potentially bring to the project because such a ranking rarely changes as the project progresses.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.03.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to gaining standing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Build your network because it’s always helpful to have a strong network of fellow professionals who know you, trust you, and believe in you.

b. Embrace the power of your difference because when your background is different than others you see the world in different ways.

c. Make your expertise undeniable by starting with a niche because, although it can be hard to be recognized as an expert if you’re a generalist, if you can demonstrate a superior knowledge of a narrow subject then once others recognize your expertise they will be more likely to listen to you on a variety of related subjects.

d. Share your knowledge because one of the best ways to convince skeptics of your merits is to prove you know what you’re doing.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.03.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to meeting in person choose the one that is invalid or choose e If all are reasonably valid.

a. If the meeting is important, do not rely solely on sending an email request for a meeting.

b. Recognize the importance of first impressions when you prepare for a meeting.

c. Starting with small talk can build a relationship between those who are speaking.

d. You can usually rely on emails to arrange a first time meeting with someone worth meeting.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.03.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creating a coalition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Coalitions should be unnecessary in organizations with well established lines of authority and communication.

b. Coalitions are a potent force in organizations.

c. Coalitions take time to form as participants identify the common goal and the best manner to approach that goal.

d. Coalition building can be viewed from an interdisciplinary perspective drawing on insights from organizational behaviour, social psychology, and political science.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.03.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creating a team choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A team is a collection of individuals organized to accomplish a common purpose, who are interdependent, and who can be identified by themselves and observers as a team.

b. Five stages of team development can be characterized as forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

c. When personal conflicts arise, it is usually preferable to give them time sort themselves out on their own because attempts to address them explicitly will almost always jeopardize team morale.

d. A clear direction, clear responsibilities and knowledgeable members are characteristics of effective teams.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.03.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to conducting a meeting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In planning a meeting, one should consider the goal or purpose of the meeting and be sure to invite those members of the organization who have the information or opinions necessary for the meeting.

b. Meetings are often the most effective way to manage projects, manage people, interact with clients, and to address workplace problems.

c. There are situations in which bringing a large group together to address an issue may cause further confusion and conflict.

d. It is usually preferable to avoid a printed agenda because this tends to overly formalize the proceedings and suppresses spontaneity.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 4: Persuading

CCQ206.04.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Aristotle’s 3 rhetorical appeals choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Logos, ethos and pathos are the three rhetorical appeals.

b. Logos refers to creating a logical argument, and one of the principles is simplicity.

c. Ethos refers to the emotional connection to the audience and one of the principles is knowing your audience.

d. Pathos refers to the ability to share your own feelings and reactions, and one of the principles is to be personal.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Cialdini’s 6 principles of persuasion science choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The six principles are reciprocity, scarcity, authority, consistency, liking, and consensus.

b. The reciprocity principle states that people will do things they see other people doing.

c. The consistency principle states that people are more likely to honor that commitment because of establishing that idea or goal as being congruent with their self-image.

d. The liking principle states that people are easily persuaded by other people that they like.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to simplicity and clarity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Simplicity and clarity is the most important in the logos cluster of persuasion principles.

b. Simplicity and clarity is usually a challenge because public management subjects are complex.

c. Research suggests that the maximum number of points that people can remember in a speech is five.

d. Communicators should keep asking themselves “What is the one thing the audience will remember?”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to storytelling choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Stories are used extensively in religious texts and lead to higher retention by listeners because they represent an intrinsic reality and thus have credibility.

b. Stories tend to follow a universal structure, described by German novelist Gustav Freytag as a pyramid with seven elements.

c. At the dénouement any remaining secrets, questions or mysteries which remain after the resolution are solved by the characters or explained by the author.

d. The story structure is less useful for short presentations than for long presentations.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to contrast choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Contrast is one of the logos principles of persuasion.

b. Useful contrast includes that between what is and what can be.

c. Useful contrast includes that between effective and ineffective.

d. Contrast refers to the need to ensure that the speaker is well lit compared to the background.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to salience choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The purpose of persuasion is to make a matter that you are concerned with salient for another person.

b. The term salience comes from the Latin salire, meaning to leap, and something with salience leaps out at you because it is unique or special in some way.

c. People will engage, and perhaps be open to persuasion, when an issue has high salience, that is the issue is important and relevant to them.

d. The concept of salience plays a key role in the theory of agenda-setting, the psychological process whereby the importance of an issue to a person is affected by the nature and extent of media coverage.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to scarcity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Opportunities seem more valuable when their availability is limited, and that this principle applies to information and ideas.

b. Loss appears to be a more motivating concept than gain.

c. Couch your persuasion argument in terms of what an audience stands to lose, not just in terms of the anticipated benefits.

d. Information that is scarce, new, or exclusive should be stated later in a persuasion message, giving the audience something to look forward to.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to repetition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Repetition is a classic rhetorical technique and there are innumerable sources of advice on when and how to use it in speeches and presentations.

b. An example is repetition of an idea first in negative terms and then in positive terms.

c. An example is repetition of words at the start of clauses.

d. An example is repetition of a phrase (usually a question) to stress a point.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the analogies and metaphors choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A metaphor can be used to express an abstract idea in concrete terms such as an 800-pound gorilla in the meeting room.

b. A metaphor can be used to generate new experiential frameworks to understand an old problem, such as thinking of your organization as a human body and try to identify the various members with the different parts.

c. A metaphor can be used to express an opinion indirectly, such as “The former prime minister is still a courtesan to public opinion.”

d. It is impossible to overuse analogies and metaphors in a presentation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to counter-intuitive facts and arguments choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are invalid.

a. Novel, fresh, surprising information may be necessary to cause people to modify their predispositions and beliefs.

b. The emotion of surprise increases alertness and gets people to focus.

c. As an example, instead of the normal formal and slow opening, consider opening with a shocking quote or a question with a surprising answer or a revealing statistic that goes against conventional wisdom.

d. As an example, start with a powerful image that’s never been seen, or reveal a relevant short story that’s never been heard, or show a statistic from a brand new study that gives new insights into a problem.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to authority and credibility choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Authority/credibility may be the most important in the ethos (characteristics of messenger) cluster of persuasion principles.

b. This principle can be used in an ethical manner by finding ways to inform the audience in advance of the presenter’s credibility and expertise.

c. People very rarely obey authority figures if they are asked to perform objectionable acts.

d. To establish your authority to speak about your topic it can be useful to begin by stating the source of your knowledge: experience, training, or research.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to liking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. We are more likely to be influenced by people we know and like.

b. We tend to like people who are positive, respectful, appreciative and empathetic.

c. Assertiveness and likeability and are at opposite ends of the same dimension.

d. We tend to like people who are similar to us, people who pay us compliments, and
people who cooperate with us.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the empathy and listening choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Empathy is the experience of understanding another person’s condition from their perspective.

b. Body language (e.g., eye contact, empathetic noises, nods) is unimportant to good listening.

c. Paraphrasing your understanding of a speaker’s words is valuable in listening.

d. Asking questions for clarification (with a genuine attempt to learn) is valuable in listening.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term personalizing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The use of personal material in presentations can be powerful but can easily be overdone.

b. The audience will care about the personal experience of the presenter to the extent it can serve as an example to them, a metaphor for their challenge and proof that they can succeed.

c. Presenters should avoid talking about themselves when it doesn’t help the audience understand their own journey or increase their belief in their own capacity to succeed.

d. Using your personal story to create an example can bring your point to life when the stories can create an experience of the information being presented.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term reciprocity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. People are more likely to say yes to those who they owe.

b. We are more likely to persuade someone if we have given them something – when we make a concession.

c. There are substantive and stylistic concessions and one of the easiest concessions to make is respectful listening.

d. An effective way to reciprocate in listening is to use language that is equivocal and doubtful.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to humour choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. It is easy to use humour effectively in presentations.

b. Humour can invoke the reciprocity principle.

c. Humour can invoke the liking principle.

d. Humour which is self-deprecating or self-parody can be effective because of the link to reciprocation, concession, and vulnerability.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to knowing the audience choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. It is easy to exaggerate the importance of knowing an audience’s general age, gender, education level, religion, language, culture, and group membership in preparing to present.

b. There are a number of psychological phenomena – such as the power of predispositions, cognitive conservatism, and confirmatory bias –  that cause people to underestimate the importance of learning about the audience.

c. Knowing the audience may be the most important of the pathos persuasion principles.

d. We typically know our audiences in a half-baked way. We need to use all available resources to know the audience.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to knowing the context choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Without context, your audience may not understand your message and you might not understand your audience.

b. Situational context refers to the reason why you’re speaking.

c. Environmental context refers to the physical space and time in which you speak.

d. Understanding the context has arguably become more important as technology and social media have changed the way people consume information and communicate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to types of attitude change choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The goal of persuasion should always be to convert the listener to your view.

b. One must ask what degree of attitude change is most appropriate for the particular persuasion situation, and should have a strategic objective clearly in mind.

c. Conversion is changing on opposing view to your view.

d. De-activation is changing an opposing view to not sure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to conformity, similarity, and social proof choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Social norms have little power in persuading people to change their views.

b. People are often persuaded to change their attitudes or behaviour in response to real or imagined group pressure.

c. Especially when they are uncertain, people will look to the actions and views of others to determine their own.

d. Conformity is a time-saving device that increases the chances of being correct, yields social approval, or avoids disapproval.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.21. Among the statements a-d pertaining to consistency and commitment choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. If people commit, orally or in writing, to an idea or goal, they are more likely to honor that commitment because of establishing that idea or goal as being congruent with their self-image.

b. People feel personal and interpersonal pressures to honour and to behave consistently with their prior commitments.

c. Small initial commitments can be leveraged into much larger commitments.

d. Commitments are most powerful when they are active, public, effortful and felt to be an inner responsibility.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.04.22. Among the statements a-d pertaining to active audience choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are invalid.

a. Encouraging an active as opposed to passive audience is one of the pathos (characteristics of audience) persuasion principles.

b. One way of encouraging an active audience is telling the audience that you want it to be active, such as putting up a slide that says, “Please, interrupt me! (Really!)”

c. One way of encouraging an active audience is to record their wish list by clarifying in the first few minutes of the presentation what’s most important to the audience.

d. One way of encouraging an active audience is to focus on benefits to the audience by asking them to confirm the benefits that are important to them.

e. All of a-d are invalid.

Quiz for Week 5: Writing to Persuade

CCQ206.05.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Smith’s 3-step approach to policy communication choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy is about problems, so some discussion and definition of the problem are necessary.

b. Decisionmakers like to have options, not for their own sake but because most policy issues involve a balance of interests and values, and have a spectrum of options that strike the balance in different ways is useful.

c. The preparation step includes identifying the significant actors, their roles, and their interests.

d. The plan step includes determining the appropriate medium – e.g., written document, presentation, e-mail.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy issue paper choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy issue papers are relatively long, detailed, and technical analyses of a policy problem, with consideration of options and recommendations.

b. Policy issue papers are shorter than policy memoranda.

c. Policy issue papers answers questions such as the scope and severity of the problem and the extent to which it requires public action.

d. Policy issue papers answer questions such as the major alternatives available to achieve the objectives and the criteria that should be employed to evaluate the performance of the alternatives.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Young and Quinn’s writing checklist for problem definition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy papers should avoid appendices and bibliographies.

b. The generic outline for a policy paper consists of title, table of contents, abstract/executive summary, introduction, problem description, policy options, conclusion and recommendations, appendices, bibliography, and endnotes.

c. The importance of writing effective titles for papers is often underestimated, but it is significant that the title is more than likely the first part of a paper readers see and it begins the process of communicating the message contained in the policy paper.

d. The problem definition is usually placed early in the introduction and is crucial in convincing your reader to share your viewpoint that an urgent problem exists and that your paper is worth reading because it will offer possible solutions to the problem.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Behn’s craft of memo writing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Writing memoranda in public management should be considered a craft, with detailed attention to design and technique.

b. You may never acquire the importance and influence that you seek – and make the career advances that you desire – without first developing your ability to write clearly, coherently, and persuasively.

c. Write for your specific audience; do not concern yourself with potential secondary circulation of the memo.

d. Omit needless words; if it is possible to cut out a word, always cut it out.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to writing a briefing note choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Briefing notes are a way to succinctly provide information quickly and effectively up the decision-making chain.

b. Most briefing notes include a Title that at a glance describes the note for the reader and a Summary – a section with 2-3 bullet points providing the highest-level summary of the issue possible.

c. The Background section of the briefing note provides the contextual information that is necessary for the reader to know, usually including who is involved, what is being done, when it is being done.

d. Everything included in the briefing note should be factual, simple, and relevant; if there an extremely important statistic or quote that would assist the reader it should be included in a prominent position.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to writing a summary choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Summaries of another writer’s work always have two important features: they are shorter than the source and they capture the same message as the original but without the same words.

b. An effective summary captures the most important information, including important information usually includes controlling ideas (purpose statements and topic sentences), major findings, and conclusions or recommendations.

c. An effective summary includes personal comments or conjectures and long explanations.

d. An effective summary can stand on its own so that readers should have to turn to the source document only if they need more detail – not to get the main ideas.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to PowerPoint and data visualization choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Most briefings to senior officials these days – indeed, it would seem most presentations of any sort – are done with presentation software such as PowerPoint.

b. A PowerPoint presentation should include paragraphs reproduced from the main document.

c. PowerPoint presentations are necessarily “low resolution” with not much space per slide and this can induce overgeneralizations, imprecision, or mere slogans. Presentations, because of low resolution, rely on bullets, which are imprecise and linear, leaving out or obscuring important causal relationships .

d. Thoughtfully planned handouts at your talk tell the audience that you are serious and precise; that you seek to leave traces and have consequences; and that you respect your audience.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Andrew Coyne’s tips for writing a column choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Be humble in front of the reader – no one has to spend two minutes reading your column and get to the point.

b. Have a point worth making; think hard about what you are bringing to the table.

c. Try to persuade people, which requires empathy to understand why they can reasonably have come to different conclusions from you.

d. Editing is crucial – avoid clichés, bombast, and sentimentality and find the exactly right word; and cut from the top – writers often spend a paragraph or two clearing their throats.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Michael Valpy’s tips for writing op-eds choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Neat, short sentences, active voice wherever possible, tightly argued.

b. Provocative, attention-grabbing lede-makes you want to read on.

c. Arguments and supporting evidence side-by-side.

d. Conclusion that ties everything together and swings back to reprise the lede.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to basic op-ed structure choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Lede (around a news hook).

b. Argument (based on evidence such as stats, news, reports from credible organizations, expert quotes, scholarship, history, first-hand experience).

c. To Be Sure paragraph (in which you pre-empt your potential critics by acknowledging any flaws in your argument, and address any obvious counter-arguments).

d. Conclusion (often circling back to your lede).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to ledes and news hooks choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Lede is a synonym for the leader, or title of the article.

b. A lede is what sets the scene and grabs your reader’s attention – it is your introduction.

c. A news hook is what makes your piece timely, and often is part of the lede.

d. A lede could be personal, such as “College admissions officers around the country will be reading my applications this month, essays in which I describe personal aspirations, academic goals – even, in one case, a budding passion for the sitar. What they won’t know is that I actually graduated from college more than a year ago, and that the names attached to these essays are those of my duplicitous clients.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to lede and subhead choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The lede, or lead paragraph in literature is the opening paragraph of an article, essay, news story or book chapter.

b. The subhead in journalism is an introductory or summary line or brief paragraph, located immediately below the headline, and typographically distinct from the body of the article.

c. Lede and subhead are synonyms.

d. The subhead is also known as subheader, standfirst, rider, kicker, or bankhead.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to writing a press release choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A press release is a brief written summary alerting the potentially interested media about an organization’s initiative or activity.

b. A press release should never be more than one page.

c. A press release should normally include several full quotes that sound like they were spoken, not written.

d. A press release can include attachments – a summary of the key points can help the reporter write an article, if the paper decides that would be more appropriate than a press release for the story you have to tell.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to style guides choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A style guide is a set of standards for writing.

b. A style guide can be developed for a specific publication, organization, or field.

c. A style and deals with spelling and grammar – not design.

b. A useful style guide for Canada is entitle The Canadian Style and includes advice on plain language.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.05.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using plain language choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Using plain language in written communication helps convey information easily and unambiguously.

b. Plain language requires using a highly simplified style, comprehensible by a sixth grade reader.

c. A number of general features distinguish plain language documents from traditional styles of government writing: they are organized for easy reading; they use words effectively; they are built of clear, simple sentences and paragraphs; and they are designed for visual appeal.

d. Plain language deals with more than words and also includes organization, document design, and sentence and paragraph style.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 6: Speaking to Persuade

CCQ206.06.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to beginning with a grabber choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Because audience members who are interested in your subject will focus on your content there is no particular value in trying to “begin with a bang.”

b. Once the speaker has the attention of the audience, it is useful to quickly establish rapport.

c. Peter Jeff’s pneumonic, TEASE, provides the following five ways to start a speech: Testimonial (citing the behaviour of a celebrity pertinent to X and/or quote an influential person the audience will know of or respect); Evidence (presenting statistics or other data on X); Anecdote (telling a story of someone directly affected by X); Statement (making a bold observation on the importance of X) and Example (citing a person whose career really took off because of X).

d.  Marie Danziger suggests seven possible ways to establish rapport with the audience in the first 60 seconds: Compliment them; Identify with them; Tell them a funny story; Address their immediate concerns, fears, or expectations; Acknowledge some difference or problem between you and them (if appropriate!); Describe an interesting story you just read or experienced – or a movie or TV show you just saw – to introduce your main theme; Share your real-time feelings about the place, the occasion, or events that have just taken place.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.02. Among the stages a-d pertaining to story arc choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Exposition: setting the scene; followed by Inciting Incident: something happens to begin the action.

b. Rising Action: the story builds and gets more exciting, leading to Climax: the moment of greatest tension in a story.

c. Falling Action: events happen as a result of the climax and we know that the story will soon end, in Resolution: the character solves the main problem/conflict or someone solves it for him or her.

d. Dénouement: the ending. At this point, any remaining secrets, questions or mysteries which remain after the resolution are solved by the characters or explained by the author.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to ladder of abstraction choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The ladder of abstraction is a concept created to describe the way that humans think and communicate in varying degrees of abstraction.

b. All speakers have a bias toward the top or bottom end of the ladder.

c. Speaking at one level of abstraction – whether at the top or the bottom of the ladder – results in a very unbalanced argument.

d. Examples of being stuck at the bottom of the ladder would be a politician who proposes a series of generic legislative reforms without addressing how the legislation will directly impact citizens, or a university professor who contrasts competing academic theories, but fails to ground any of them with practical real-life examples.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to ending memorably choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bookend close: Refer back to your opening anecdote or quote.

b. Callback close: Refer back to a story you told where some activity was not fully completed.

c. Repetitive close: Find a phrase and structure it in a repetitive format that strikes the cadence of a drummer, building to a crescendo ending of a motivational speech.

d. Third party close: Use the premise of a quotation to frame your finale so that it serves as a launching pad to lift your message high for the audience to more fully appreciate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to elevator pitch choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Persuasive speakers should be able to describe yourself, your proposal and its value proposition in 30 to 120 seconds, the time span of an elevator ride.

b. The purpose of the elevator pitch is interest the listener sufficiently to allow you to make the full pitch.

c. An elevator pitch has less utility in a policy-making environment than it does in a business environment.

d. Elements of an elevator pitch can include answers to the following five questions: Who are you? What is your policy area? Why is it important? What is your goal? How will you carry it through? How much and what kind of support do you need to carry it through?

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to practicing the presentation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Practicing a presentation reduces spontaneity and usually reduces the ability to connect with the audience.

b. Most people do not devote a sufficiently high a portion of the total preparation time for a presentation to rehearsing its delivery.

c. Benefits of practicing a presentation include discovering awkward phrases and tongue-twisters that you did not notice when writing and editing.

d. Benefits of practicing a presentation include gauging the timing and reducing nervousness since rehearsing even one time will improve your confidence in your material.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to pre-speech warmups choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Exercises before speaking can improve a presentation or speech.

b. Warm up is unnecessary for presentations in a small room or for audiences of less than 6 people.

c. Good speech takes muscle and just as your leg muscles work better if you warm them up before a run, so will your speech muscles work better if you warm them up.

d. Longer warm-ups can include stretching and breathing exercises followed by reading selected word sequences.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to reading as speech choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One should never deliver a speech by reading from a text.

b. Although most public speaking advisors counsel against reading texts, there are occasions when it is necessary or expedient to read from a text, in which case there are a number of techniques that can help.

c. For the version to read, type it and print with a large font size (12, 14, or 18-point font) and use multiple narrow columns, use subheads (not to be read), use ellipses to mark pauses, and bolding to mark words, phrases, or entire sentences that require extra emphasis.

d. When reading, position your printed page high and away from your body, use gestures, and use facial gestures even when you are facing downward because forcing yourself to generate appropriate facial gestures will bring your vocal variety alive.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to body language and posture choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Body language (non-verbal expression) is a powerful form of communication and a speaker’s posture influences not only the listener’s assessment of the speaker, but also the behaviour of the speaker.

b. Never try to “fake it” when adopting a pose that presents you in a more powerful position.

c. Eye contact conveys confidence.

d. Engage with your face.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to eye contact choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Avoid direct eye contact with people who you do not know personally.

b. Eye contact impacts one’s ability to connect with an audience and, by extension, one’s effectiveness as a speaker.

c. Bill Clinton describes his technique as “I picked one person in the audience, and I had a private one-on-one conversation with that person for a full thought, and then I went to another person in the audience and I really looked at them and I held a private conversation with that person for a full thought.”

d. Nobody expects you to sustain eye contact for an entire 60-minute seminar but be sure to elevate the effectiveness of key lines by making sure you are looking at your audience.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to voice projection and volume choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Projecting one’s voice at the appropriate volume enhances one’s effectiveness as a speaker.

b. Find a volume that everyone can hear and stick to it.

c. Vary the volume throughout because speaking for any length of time at the same volume (whether loud or soft) puts people to sleep.

d. Emphasize target words or phrases by speaking louder or softer (as appropriate) and mirror emotional content with volume changes.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to speech pauses choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. If you do pauses right, nobody is conscious of them, but your ideas are communicated more persuasively.

b. If you do pauses wrong, your credibility is weakened, and your audience struggles to comprehend your message.

c. Appropriate lengths for pauses (from a fraction of second to several seconds or more) will vary considerably based on your speaking style, the nature of your message, the duration of your talk, your audience, and cultural norms.

d. Pauses should be used consistently so that, for example, comma pauses (however long they are) should be shorter than paragraph pauses.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to eliminating filler words choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Filler words such as um, uh, and you know are natural and add authenticity to presentations.

b. Persuasive speakers avoid using filler words.

c. Repeated and excessive use of fillers weakens your credibility, because it may be perceived as indicating lack of preparation, lack of knowledge, or lack of passion.

d. Fillers are inserted when our brain needs a moment to catch up to our mouth so to avoid fillers, raise your level of preparation, and/or slow your pace to make it easier for your brain to keep up.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.06.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to controlling uptalk and like choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Uptalk, a way of speaking that puts an upward inflection on the last word of a statement that makes it sound like a question when it’s not, and the frequent use of like are natural and add authenticity to presentations.

b. Persuasive speakers avoid uptalk and excessive use of the word like.

c. Use of like can be reduced by pausing when you would typically insert “like.“ Vocalized pauses are just filling places where you don’t have anything to say. So, each time you anticipate saying “like,” pause instead. This approach works for other vocalized pauses, such as: “um,” “er,” “ah,” and “you know.” Pausing, rather than saying “like,” has the added benefit of making you sound more confident and authoritative.

d. When you’re giving a quantity that you’re not sure of use about, approximately, or roughly rather than like to indicate that you’re guessing or approximating.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 7: Fifty Concepts in Governance and Institutions (50 questions)

CCQ206.07.01. Recognizing the competing values in governance and institutions among the pairs listed in a-d choose the one least in tension or choose e if all are in tension.

a. Equity – Efficiency

b. Initiative – Effectiveness

c. Impartiality – Discretion

d. Equality – Merit

e. In all of the pairs listed in a-d there is substantial tension.

CCQ206.07.02. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term governance choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Governance means decision making in a sovereign state.

b. Governance encompasses all processes of governing, whether undertaken by a government, market, or network, whether over a family, tribe, formal or informal organization, or territory, and whether through laws, norms, power, or language.

c. The use of the term governance is associated with a shift from hierarchy to markets and networks.

d. Governance refers to the processes and interactions through which highly diverse social interests and actors produce the policies, practices, and effects of governing.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.03. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term public interest choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public interest is the amount owed each year on the public debt of a government.

b. Public interest is the benefit or advantage of the community as a whole.

c. Public interest is the welfare of the general public in which the whole society has a stake and which warrants recognition, promotion, and protection by the government and its agencies.

d. Public interest is a common concern among citizens in the management and affairs of local, state, and national government. 

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.04. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term public management choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public management is the work of mobilizing others to accomplish socially useful purposes and advance the public interest.

b. Public management is a nexus where politics, law, and administration necessarily engage each other.

c. Public management means adapting private sector management practices to the public sector.

d. Public management means performing certain tasks related to policy implementation in publicly supported programs.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.05. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term Crown prerogative choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Crown prerogative is the source for the following executive powers in Canada: foreign affairs (e.g., treaty-making and diplomatic appointments); defence and the armed forces (e.g., sending peacekeepers abroad).

b. Crown prerogative is the source for the following executive powers in Canada: passports, pardons, and the prerogative of mercy; the hiring and dismissal of certain public officials; honours and titles; copyright over government publications; the law of heraldry; incorporating companies by royal charter; collecting tolls from bridges and ferries; and the right to proclaim holidays.

c. The scope of Crown prerogative in Canada has increased over time.

d. Crown prerogative is the residue of discretionary or arbitrary authority, which at any given time is legally left in the hands of the Crown.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.06. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term political executive choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In a Westminster system, the political executive comprises the Prime Minister or Premier, Cabinet and the most senior members of the continuing civil service.

b. In a Westminster system, the political executive comprises the Prime Minister or Premier and Cabinet and the political staff that support them.

c. In a Westminster system, the political executive includes the Prime Minster’s (or Premier’s) Office and ministers’ offices.

d. The political executive directs the government of the day, while the civil service, like the Crown itself, enjoys continuity through transitions of government.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.07. Among statements a-d pertaining to Prime Ministerial prerogatives choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Prime Ministerial prerogatives are Crown prerogatives that are exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister, in contrast to the advice of the Cabinet (Ministers in Council).

b. Much of the power enjoyed by a Prime Minister stems from his or her authority to form the Cabinet since it is the Prime Minister who decides who will actually make up the Cabinet, and what portfolios will be assigned to each person.

c. The Prime Minister also has the power to determine who holds many key offices in the public service, including Senators, Supreme Court judges, deputy ministers, and heads of government agencies, boards, and corporations.

d. The Prime Minister is often seen as the nation’s chief diplomat in an era of summit diplomacy when Heads of Governments regularly meet with one another on a face-to-face basis.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.08. Among statements a-d pertaining to administrative law choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Administrative law deals with the administration of justice and in Canada it provides all persons with due process, regardless of their citizenship.

b. The major purpose of administrative law is to ensure that the activities of government are authorized by Parliament or by provincial legislatures, and that laws are implemented and administered in a fair and reasonable manner.

c. Administrative law is based on the principle that government action, whatever form it takes, must be legal, and that citizens who are affected by unlawful acts of government officials must have effective remedies.

d. Canadian courts will only exercise their control over administrative authorities if the authority exceeds its jurisdiction, if it makes a decision which is patently unreasonable, or if it follows improper or unfair procedures.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.09. Among statements a-d pertaining to impartiality choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Canadian Superior Courts Judges Association states that it is not enough for the judiciary, as an institution, to be independent – individual judges must be seen to be objective and impartial and this means that in their personal lives, judges must avoid words, actions or situations that might make them appear to be biased or disrespectful of the laws they are sworn to uphold.

b. For public servants, the doctrine of impartiality means that one must serve the Government, whatever its political persuasion, to the best of one’s ability in a way which maintains political impartiality no matter what one’s own political beliefs are.

c. For public servants, the doctrine of impartiality means that one must deal equally with everyone, and with every organisation, without prejudice, favour or disfavour.

d. For public servants, the doctrine of impartiality permits one to act in a way which deserves and retains the confidence of Ministers, while at the same time ensuring that one will be able to establish the same relationship with those whom one may be required to serve in some future Government.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.10. Among statements a-d pertaining to viewpoint diversity choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Advocates of viewpoint diversity within the academy would like to see greater emphasis in both teaching and research on the perspectives of the many underprivileged groups whose concerns are not yet adequately addressed by mainstream society.

b. Advocates of viewpoint diversity claim that scholarship in the social sciences and related fields such as law and public policy would be better served if there were greater diversity of viewpoints among researchers.

c. Advocates of viewpoint diversity claim that some ideas become widely accepted without any real evidence because they support particular political or moral agendas.

d. Advocates of viewpoint diversity claim that the following ideas have become entrenched even though the evidence suggests that they are highly questionable: humans are a blank slate and human nature does not exist; and all differences between human groups are caused by differential treatment of those groups.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.11. Among statements a-d pertaining to centre vs. periphery choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. There are a many ways in which the perspective of “the centre” of government differs from those of other parts of government.

b. The centre vs. periphery dynamic is seen in how national vs. regional interests play out around the Cabinet table.

c. The centre vs. periphery dynamic is seen in how officials in staff positions interact with those in line positons.

d. The centre vs. periphery dynamic is seen in how central agencies interact with operating ministries.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.12. Among statements a-d pertaining to guardians vs. spenders choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The guardian-spender conception of an enduring dynamic within government was articulated in 1964 by Aaron Wildavsky.

b. Participants in the budgetary process tend to be either guardians of the treasury or advocates of program spending.

c. The guardian vs. spender roles are attached to institutional positions with guardians from central agencies controlling the budget and spending advocates from program agencies.

d. Successful prime ministers try to design systems to downplay the guardian vs spender dynamic within government.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.13. Among statements a-d pertaining to staff vs. line positions choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The differences in roles and perspectives between staff (usually at headquarters) and line (often in regional offices) are among the most enduring institutional dynamics in government.

b. People in staff positions try to encourage those in line positions to take more initiative to respond in a timely way to variations in local circumstances.

c. People in staff positions try to look at the big picture and how all the pieces fit together.

d. People in line positions resent attempts by staff analysts to impose standardized processes to which all units must follow.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.14. Among statements a-d pertaining to regionalism choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Regionalism is the distinctive local character of a geographic area, or a people’s perception of and identification with such places.

b. In Canada, there was no continuous, expansive national experience with the land. One patch would fill up, then people would emigrate to a new area. Different patches were settled at different times by people of different backgrounds who depended on different technologies and economies.

c. In Canada, one of the most successful tools for combatting regionalism was the imposition of high tariffs on U.S. goods which allowed Canadian manufacturing to flourish and connect with new buyers from across the country.

d. Many political scientists have observed that Canadian politics is more regional than in many other advanced democracies.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.15. Among statements a-d pertaining to Cabinet solidarity and secrecy choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In the Westminster form of government, a minister is not expected to seek Cabinet agreement on a decision provided the legislative authority for the decision lies clearly within the minister’s portfolio.

b. Regardless of which ministers (or how many) are involved in making a decision, the Cabinet operates on the principle of Cabinet solidarity meaning that all Cabinet ministers must publicly defend all Cabinet policies or resign.

c. In addition to the practice of solidarity, the Cabinet also operates under the principle of Cabinet secrecy or confidentiality such that Cabinet ministers are not to disclose information about Cabinet deliberations in order to protect Cabinet deliberations (and possible discord) from being exploited by Opposition parties and the media.

d. In Canada, Cabinet documents are not normally made public for a period of 20 years.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.16. Among statements a-d pertaining to speaking truth to power choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Speaking truth to power is a term used to capture the role of public servants in a Westminster system of government to advise the political executive without fear or favour.

b. Speaking truth to power is a concept with little direct relevance to public servants who are not involved in the process of preparing advice for Ministers.

c. Speaking truth to power is an obligation to tell people not what they want to hear, but rather what they need to hear.

d. Speaking truth to power includes recognizing when the argument is over and not to keep on fighting after the issue has been decided.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.17. Among statements a-d pertaining to policy advisory systems choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The policy advisory system comprises an interlocking set of actors with a unique configuration in each sector and jurisdiction, who provide information, knowledge, and recommendations for action to policymakers.

b. In modern Westminster governments the executive advisory landscape is a complex web of policy advisory sources, many of which exist outside of government.

c. Given the number of advisory sources, it is useful to conceive of partisan advisers as one component in an overall policy advisory system.

d. Sources of policy advice over which the government has relatively high control include statutory authorities, community groups, and trade unions.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.18. Among statements a-d pertaining to the Cabinet decision-making system choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A sound Cabinet decision-making manages the flow of information and ideas to help secure agreement among ministers on the government’s priorities and to provide an effective forum for ministerial debate on issues of general interest and for expression of diverse regional interests.

b. There are no ideal models of Cabinet decision-making that exist independently from the people who use the system, and the circumstances in which they work.

c. The undisputed constant is that Cabinet, and its related structures are above all the Prime Minister’s own instruments for achieving his government’s goals. They must be both functional and comfortable for the Prime Minister, as well as for Cabinet colleagues and the officials who serve them.

d. Given the importance of the Cabinet decision-making system to the maintenance of Cabinet solidarity, many Canadian prime ministers have used a consensus-based process to establish the system that best suits their government. This is one of the most important tasks following the swearing in of Ministers and typically involves discussions with key ministers and at Cabinet over the first few weeks of government.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.19. Among statements a-d pertaining to Cabinet documents choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Cabinet documents are documents that, if disclosed, would reveal any consideration or deliberation of Cabinet, or otherwise prejudice the confidentiality of Cabinet considerations, deliberations or operations.

b. Cabinet documents include submissions, submitted or proposed to be submitted to Cabinet; Cabinet agenda, notice of meetings and business lists for meetings; and minutes and decisions of Cabinet.

c. Cabinet documents do not include appendices to Cabinet submissions that consist purely of analysis of publicly available material and which do not reach recommendations.

d. The instructions for the preparation of Cabinet materials for the Government of Canada are publicly available on the Privy Council Office website.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.20. Among statements a-d pertaining to political aide choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Political aides, also called political staffers, are employees who are hired and fired by the minister, or the prime minister, whose salaries and benefits are paid from government revenues, but who are not part of the regular public service and are permitted to be explicitly political.

b. Political aides are able to draft speeches, press releases and other documents that conform to the overall political direction of the government.

c. Political aides provide advice to the minister about pending policy matters or cabinet or parliamentary business that must be managed in accordance with the government’s political environment.

d. Most functions performed by political aides could, from a constitutional and legal perspective, be assigned to non-partisan public servants but it would be more costly to do so.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.21. Among statements a-d pertaining to the constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants are appointed and promoted on the basis of merit rather than of party affiliation or contributions.

b. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants do not engage in partisan political activities and do not express publicly their personal views on government policies or administration.

c. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants provide forthright and objective advice to their political masters in private and in confidence; in return, political executives protect the anonymity of public servants by publicly accepting responsibility for departmental decisions.

d. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service holds that public servants execute policy decisions loyally, irrespective of the philosophy and programs of the party in power and regardless of their personal opinions; as a result, public servants enjoy security of tenure during good behaviour and satisfactory performance

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.22. Among statements a-d pertaining to ministerial responsibility choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The principle of ministerial responsibility holds that if civil servants carry out the minister’s orders, or act in accordance with the minister’s policy, it is for the minister and not for the civil servants to take any blame.

b. Ministerial responsibility means that a minister must resign if a serious and avoidable error occurs within the government portfolio which the minister heads.

c. Traditionally, ministerial responsibility has been viewed as the most important and most contentious of Westminster government conventions. But it is rarely defined, and this lack of a shared understanding of its requirements permits confusing, creative, and misleading interpretations of its meaning.

d. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service is part of what is sometimes referred to in the public administration literature as the iron triangle of conventions consisting of political neutrality, ministerial responsibility, and public service anonymity.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.23. Among statements a-d pertaining to political neutrality of public servants choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Political neutrality is a constitutional convention which provides that public servants should avoid activities likely to impair, or seem to impair, their political impartiality or the political impartiality of the public service.

b. The constitutional convention of a politically neutral civil service is part of what is sometimes referred to in the public administration literature as the ‘iron triangle’ of conventions consisting of political neutrality, ministerial responsibility, and public service anonymity.

c. The convention of political neutrality does not apply to public service unions and it is widely accepted that if a public service union actively supports a political party it does not impede the ability of individual union members to perform their jobs in a politically neutral manner.

d. The fact that political neutrality of public servants is not part of the written constitution does not detract from their centrality to Canada’s constitutional system.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.24. Among statements a-d pertaining to public service anonymity choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public service anonymity is the convention that ministers answer to Parliament and to the public for government actions without naming the public servants who provided advice or who carried out the administrative action.

b. The constitutional convention of public service anonymity has been strengthened by the clear rules set out in legislation on the duties of the accounting officer.

c. The anonymity of the civil service is linked to two concepts: permanence and neutrality. Civil servants, many of whom remain in their jobs whilst serving numerous governments, are thus likely to have to give advice to governments of different political parties, who may have different attitudes to policy. The advice they give needs to be given to ministers both freely and also without fear of adverse public or political reactions and without fear of future career damage.

d. The anonymity of the civil service is linked to the concept of ministerial responsibility, whereby the convention is for the minister to accept responsibility for their actions and decisions and those of their departments.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.25. Among statements a-d pertaining to the UK Civil Service Skills and Knowledge Framework choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to consider and balance evidence, politics, and delivery at whatever stage the policy is at.

b. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to understand and manage the political context by monitoring the political context and giving timely, honest, objective and impartial advice and recommendations to respond to the changing context in which Ministers operate.

c. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to respond to the change in relationship with ministers at different stages of policy development; balancing the political view with other considerations.

d. UK civil service policy professionals are expected to be able to support ministers’ engagement with parliament and enable public accountability in their area.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.26. Among statements a-d pertaining to intergovernmental relations choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In Canada, intergovernmental relations typically refer to the relations among the various governments within a country and in Canada they usually refer to federal-provincial-territorial relations.

b. Canada, like most federations, has not formally anchored its intergovernmental structures and processes in its Constitution so that intergovernmental mechanisms have tended to evolve in response to changing political dynamics.

c. Intergovernmental relations is becoming markedly less important in Canada as government’s proportion of overall economic activity declines.

d. Intergovernmental relations remain important because central and provincial government activities are intertwined in a pattern of shared and overlapping responsibilities, shared authority and shared funding in many areas of public policy.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.27. Among statements a-d pertaining to multilateral collaboration with diffuse reciprocity model choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Multilateral collaboration with diffuse reciprocity is characterized by a high level of federal-provincial-territorial engagement based on equality of orders and norms of co-ownership of policy field through strong intergovernmental institutions.

b. Multilateral collaboration with diffuse reciprocity cannot work at the level of officials if there is not a commitment to collaborate at the political level.

c. One requirement for multilateral collaboration with diffuse reciprocity is a high-level of trust among the actors involved such that there is a genuine commitment and acceptance of a set of consultative norms.

d. Collaborative intergovernmental relations involve a demonstrable commitment to the principle of diffuse reciprocity: that is, to an outcome that will eventually yield a rough equivalency of benefits for all parties over time.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.28. Among statements a-d pertaining to unilateral action with particular interests model choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Unilateral action with particular interests by one government or another is becoming more prevalent in Canada, partly due to increased fiscal constraints and shorter news cycles.

b. The unilateral action with particular interests model is characterized by a strong sense that a government can legitimately act on its own in a policy area, even if it impacts another government without consultation.

c. Unilateral action can take two broad forms: governments undertaking the development and implementation of policy in an area understood as largely within their exclusive responsibility; or, one order of government unilaterally taking action understanding that it will significantly impact the other order of government.

d. The line between the two aspects of unilateralism is not as clear as it may seem: despite the formally exclusive nature of most federal-provincial areas of responsibility, there is widespread recognition in practice that there is considerable overlap.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.29. Among statements a-d pertaining to machinery of municipal government one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The basic structure of municipal government is simpler than that found at the provincial and federal levels because there are no separate legislative and executive branches of government at the municipal level.

b. Municipal responsibilities are concentrated in the elected council and are carried out by appointed staff who are mostly organized into a number of functionally specialized departments.

c. Municipal councils consist of a head (known as warden or chair in counties and other upper tier governments, as mayor in cities and towns, and as reeve, chair, or overseer in villages and townships) and a widely varying number of councillors.

d. Most Canadian cities use the “council manger system” separating the policy and administrative activities of the municipality and involves the appointment of a professional administrator (the manager) to whom is delegated complete responsibility for administering the programs of the municipality, including coordination and supervision of all staff.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.30. Among statements a-d pertaining to multilevel governance in cities choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Multilevel governance as a mode of policy making that involves complex interactions among multiple levels of government and social forces.

b. Multilevel governance as it has emerged in Canada’s big cities rests on the premise that the policy concerns of nested layers of authority in the Canadian federal system are interdependent and thus require ongoing multilevel coordination.

c. Many of the multilevel policy successes hinge on the development of collaboration agreements or collaborative institutions that limit inter-agent transaction costs and help manage the agenda instability that so often threatens the sustainability of multilevel policy initiatives.

d. As multilevel governance evolves in Canada there will be little or no need for constitutional changes or dramatic provincial measures to transfer more formal authority to cities.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.31. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term organizational behaviour choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational behaviour is the field of study that investigates how organizational structures, as opposed to human preferences, affect the actions of the organization as a whole.

b. Organizational behaviour studies the impact individuals, groups, and structures have on human behaviour within organizations.

c. Organizational behaviour is an interdisciplinary field that includes sociology, psychology, communication, and management.

d. Organizational behavior complements organizational theory, which focuses on organizational and intra-organizational topics, and complements human-resource studies, which is more focused on everyday business practices.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.32. Among statements a-d pertaining to the term organizational theory choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational theory is the set of interrelated concepts and definitions that explain the behaviour of individuals or groups or subgroups who interact with each other to perform the activities intended towards the accomplishment of a common goal.

b. Prominent organizational theories have included scientific management theory, administrative theory, and bureaucratic theory.

c. Scientific management theory is known for its application of engineering science at the production floor or the operating levels and is sometimes called Taylorism after its major contributor, Fredrick Winslow Taylor.

d. Bureaucratic theory is related to the structure and administrative process of the organization and is associated with Max Weber, who described the bureaucratic organization is the most rational means to exercise control over the individual workers.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.33. Among statements a-d pertaining to Weber’s theory of bureaucracy choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Weber’s bureaucratic model includes continuous learning and adaptation to changing circumstances.

b. Weber’s bureaucratic model includes rigid division of labor which clearly identifies the regular tasks and duties of the particular bureaucratic system.

c. Weber’s bureaucratic model includes firmly established chains of command, and the duties and capacity to coerce others to comply is described by regulation.

d. Weber’s bureaucratic model includes regular and continuous execution of the assigned duties by hiring people with particular qualifications which are certified.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.34. Among statements a-d pertaining to organizational culture choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational culture is the collection of values and behaviors that contribute to the unique social and psychological environment of an organization.

b. Organizational culture is organic in nature and remains largely unaffected by actions and initiatives taken by senior management.

c. Organizational culture includes an organization’s expectations, experiences, philosophy, and values that hold it together, and is expressed in its self-image, inner workings, interactions with the outside world, and future expectations.

d. Organizational culture is based on shared attitudes, beliefs, customs, and written and unwritten rules that have been developed over time and are considered valid.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.35. Among statements a-d pertaining to organizational control choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational control is the process of establishing and maintaining authority over and throughout an enterprise.

b. An organizational control process within a larger enterprise typically requires the use of systems that assist a manager in analyzing considerable amounts of data about how the organization and its employees are functioning in order to make appropriate administrative decisions.

c. Organizational control typically involves four steps: establish standards; measure performance; compare performance to standards; and take corrective action as needed.

d. A well designed organizational control system is unlikely to have much effect on organizational responsiveness or morale.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.36. Among statements a-d pertaining to organizational policies choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational policies are explicit statements describing expected behaviours of members of the organization.

b. In high performing organizations, most employees are familiar with most of the organization’s policies.

c. Organizational policies include principles, rules, and guidelines formulated or adopted by an organization to reach its long-term goals and typically published in a booklet or other form that is widely accessible.

d. Organizational policies are designed to influence and determine all major decisions and actions, and all activities take place within the boundaries set by them.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.37. Among statements a-d pertaining to new public management (NPM) choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. NPM is a set of principles for government spending and activity that were developed as a response to the global financial crises of 2008-09.

b. NPM is a public sector management theory that seeks to make government more efficient and responsive by employing private sector techniques and creating market conditions for the delivery of public services.

c. NPM theorists suggest that because much of the civil service focuses on the delivery of core services that should be free of political machinations, governments should employ private sector management principles and try to create market conditions to make the delivery of services more efficient and autonomous.

d. NPM involves re-examining what government does and attempting to make it more strategic and results-oriented, increasing the flexibility of staffing, improving financial management, and relying increasingly on competitions and contracts.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.38. Among statements a-d pertaining to networked governance choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Networked governance refers to the increasingly important set of interactions between officials at the local, provincial, national, and international levels.

b. Policymakers in advanced nations are coming to see the role of government as operating through networks of state and societal actors, rather than as command-and-control hierarchies.

c. Because lines of accountability within networks may be multiple, tangled and obscured, networked governance challenges established concepts of democratic government, with their emphasis on the ultimate exercise of sanction through democratic institutions.

d. The central problems in a networked governance model of the role of government are the location of responsibility order to ensure accountability, and the channeling of the information necessary to hold responsible agents accountable.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.39. Among statements a-d pertaining to digital government and e-government choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Digital government is the use of digital technologies, as an integrated part of governments’ modernization strategies, to create public value.

b. Digital government relies on a digital government ecosystem comprised of government actors, non-governmental organisations, businesses, citizens’ associations and individuals which supports the production of and access to data, services and content through interactions with the government.

c. e-government is the use by the governments of information and communication technologies, and particularly the Internet, as a tool to achieve better government.

d. The greatest impediment to advances in digital government is the lack of computer and Internet access by citizens.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.40. Among statements a-d pertaining to quasi-public corporation choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A quasi-public corporation is a type of corporation in the private sector that is backed by a branch of government that has a public mandate to provide a given service.

b. Employees of quasi-public corporations work for the government.

c. Most quasi-public corporations began as government agencies, but have since become separate entities.

d. It is not uncommon to see the shares of quasi-public corporations trade on major stock exchanges, which allows individual investors to gain exposure to the company’s profit.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.41. Among statements a-d pertaining to management differences between the public and private sectors choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Wallace Sayre famously quipped “public and private management are fundamentally alike in all unimportant respects.”

b. Unlike the private sector, the public sector often uses public authority in performing its functions whereby citizens can be forced to comply with decisions, pay taxes, have their property compulsorily acquired, and are subject to sanctions deriving in the end from the coercive powers of the state.

c. The public sector’s coercive element calls for fair and equitable treatment whereas private enterprises have great freedom to be arbitrary in dealing with different customers differently or in ignoring normal procedures.

d. It is easier to measure performance in the public sector than the private sector because everything comes down to the single indicator of electoral success.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.42. Among statements a-d pertaining to management consulting choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Management consulting is the practice of helping organizations to improve their performance, operating primarily through the analysis of existing organizational problems and the development of plans for improvement.

b. Management consultants specialize in developing unique methodologies to help clients avoid the dangers of trying to mimic “best practices.

c. Management consultants may provide process analysis and operational improvement services.

d. Management consultants may provide strategy development organizational change management services.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.43. Among statements a-d pertaining to performance improvement and performance leadership choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Performance improvement usually involves measuring the output of a particular business process or procedure, then modifying the process or procedure to increase the output, increase efficiency, or increase the effectiveness of the process or procedure.

b. Performance improvement can be applied to either individual performance such as an employee or organizational performance such as a department of government.

c. Performance improvement should, in principle, be easier in the public sector than the private sector because the public sector relies more on fair and uniform processes.

d. In organizational development, performance improvement is organizational change in which the managers and governing body of an organization put into place and manage a program which measures the current level of performance of the organization and then generates ideas for modifying organizational behaviour and infrastructure which are put into place to achieve higher output.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.44. Among statements a-d pertaining to deliverology choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Deliverology is the science of delivering on goals and promises, particularly those made by governments.

b. Deliverology is a term associated with Sir Michael Barber, a former aide to UK prime minister Tony Blair, who led the Prime Minister’s Delivery Unit.

c. Deliverology relies on a clear identification of priorities, the setting of targets and the collection of data related to those priorities, and the exercise of central oversight through a unit reporting directly and regularly to the leader.

d. Deliverology is particularly applicable in a federal system of where the national government is largely uninvolved in direct service delivery.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.45. Among statements a-d pertaining to public-private partnerships (PPP) choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A PPP is a long-term contract between a private party and a government entity, for providing a public asset or service, in which the private party bears significant risk and management responsibility, and remuneration is linked to performance.

b. Creating a PPP is a relatively new phenomenon and there is not yet much comparative data on how and when it works best.

c. The OECD recommends that any PPP project should be treated transparently in the budget process such that the budget documentation should disclose all costs and contingent liabilities.

d. The OECD recommends that in implementing any PPP project government should guard against waste and corruption by ensuring the integrity of the procurement process and ensuring that the necessary procurement skills and powers are made available to the relevant authorities.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.46. Among statements a-d pertaining to privatization choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Privatization is a material transaction by which the state’s ultimate ownership of corporate entities is reduced.

b. The definition of privatization differs among OECD countries with some countries including only transactions subject to privatization legislation while others include transfer of individual activities from the public to the private domain.

c. Privatization is a relatively new phenomenon and there is not yet much comparative data on how and when it works best.

d. The OECD says governments need to continually assess the pros and cons of privatizing their state owned enterprises and this involves weighing the revenues to the public purse and the macroeconomic efficiency gains from privatization against the net losses of public utility provided by the enterprise remaining in public as opposed to private ownership.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.47. Among statements a-d pertaining to service standards choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A service standard is a public commitment to a measurable level of performance that clients can expect under normal circumstances.

b. While service standards are common in the private sector they are rarely used in the public sector.

c. Service standards serve two key purposes: to provide staff with performance targets (“Phone must be answered within three rings”); and to inform clients what to expect (“Waiting time is less than 10 minutes”).

d. Service standards reinforce government accountability by making performance transparent, and increase the confidence of citizens in government by demonstrating the government’s commitment to service excellence.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.48. Among statements a-d pertaining to human resource management reforms choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Reforming human resource management practices is rarely included in efforts to modernize government.

b. Human resource management practices are considered to be a major institutional driver in the efficiency of the public sector.

c. Human resource management reforms are often driven by ideological considerations and management fads rather than by efficiency concerns.

d. Performance-related pay initiatives appear to have a low impact on staff motivation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.49. Among statements a-d pertaining to public sector innovation choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public sector innovation refers to the development and adoption of new ways to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of government operations.

b. Most OECD governments encourage innovation in their public sectors and examples of innovations can be found on a web portal called Observatory of Public Sector Innovation.

c. In Canada, as part of Destination 2020, a blueprint for public service modernisation, the Clerk of the Privy Council committed to establishing a central innovation hub that provides expertise and advice on new and emerging approaches to policy and program challenges, such as behavioural economics and social finance, and helps help departments and agencies to test, document, accelerate, replicate and scale innovation across the public service.

d. The UK has introduced a What Works Network to improve the use of high quality evidence when government makes decisions about public services, and is claimed to be the first time any government has prioritized evidence to inform policy and practice through a national approach.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

CCQ206.07.50. Among statements a-d pertaining to public sector leadership and communication choose one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. OECD has said that leadership is a critical component of good public governance and that effective communication is increasingly viewed as a crucial element in effective leadership in any organizational setting.

b. OECD member countries are finding that there is a gap between how their public sectors are, and how the interests of the nation need them to be now or in the future, and a common response seems to be the attempt to promote a certain kind of leadership.

c. Despite the crucial role played by leadership, for a variety of reasons the OECD does not see leadership ever becoming a “hot topic” in public management.

d. The leadership development strategies of OECD members are spread across a wide spectrum, ranging from countries with centralized systems (where future leaders are identified and nurtured from the early stage) to countries which use “market-type” approaches to developing and securing leaders.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid statements.

Quiz for Week 8: Twenty Concepts in Policy Analysis and Process (20 questions)

CCQ206.08.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term policy design choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy design is the process of choosing the most appropriate instrument to deal with the policy problem as it has been defined in order to achieve a given policy goal.

b. Policy design is a mix of inspiration and technique.

c. Policy design is about efficiency – getting the job done with the least resources – and explicitly sets aside considerations of political popularity and impacts on re-election.

d. While there is some agreement on at least the major policy instruments and their characteristics, there is little agreement (or knowledge) of how and when particular mixes of instruments should be used in policy design.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public policy can be defined as a course of action or inaction chosen by public authorities to address a given problem or interrelated set of problems.

b. Public policy can be defined as systematically using the state to affect peoples’ lives.

c. Public policy can be generally defined as a system of laws, regulatory measures, courses of action, and funding priorities concerning a given topic promulgated by a governmental entity or its representatives.

d. Successful public policy depends on the development and use of a sound evidence base; the understanding and managing the political context; and planning from the outset for how the policy will be delivered.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s Elements of Policy Content choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Leslie Pal describes the three key elements of policy content as Goals, Problem Definition, and Instruments.

b. Policy analysis is usually iterative – it moves through the loop of policy content elements several times, refining an understanding of any one element in light of the others.

c. There will be consistency between the different elements such that a definition of a problem should fit somehow with the instruments and goals.

d. When consistency is achieved among goals, problem definition, and instruments, little consideration is required of factors such as actors and related policy frameworks.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy consistency choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policies are expected to be consistent in three interrelated ways – internal consistency, vertical consistency, and horizontal consistency.

b. We expect policies to have an internal consistency among the three elements of problem definition, goals, and instruments.

c. We expect a policy to have vertical consistency in the sense that the programs and activities undertaken in its name are logically related to it.

d. Horizontal consistency, the expectation that what governments do in one field will not contradict what they do in another, will be found whenever governments operate with clear goals and consistent values.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s types of reasoning in policy analysis choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pal’s four types of reasoning in policy analysis are normative, legal, logical, and empirical.

b. Normative reasoning analyzes policy in relation to impacts and effects, costs, and administration.

c. Legal reasoning analyzes policy in terms of jurisdiction and consistency with legislation or the Charter.

d. Logical reasoning analyzes policy in terms of internal, vertical, and horizontal consistency and whether it “makes sense.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy analysis’s impact on policymaking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The high point in the fortunes of policy analysis and scientific decisionmaking was in the 1960s, when the United States decided to adopt the Planning-Programming-Budgeting System (PPBS), later adopted in Canada as well, and then made program evaluation mandatory, thus setting off a boom in the industry in the 1970s.

b. Carol Weiss and her colleagues began a series of studies through the 1970s to assess the effect of policy analysis activity on the policy process and concluded that the “implications of explanatory studies and the recommendations from policy-oriented studies seemed to have little effect on either the day-today operations of program management or the long-term directions of public policy.”

c. The collapse of planned economies in the 1990s and 2008 financial crisis have reinforced the proposition that policy analysis has little relevance to future policy making.

d. Some scholars have argued that policy analysis, like the rest of the social sciences have an enlightenment function, providing broad ideas, concepts, insights, and theoretical perspectives and that the work may, in combination with other work with a similar theme and message, seep into the public consciousness.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy capacity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy capacity is the institutional ability to conduct policy analysis and implement its results effectively and efficiently.

b. The World Bank has stated that for human welfare to be advanced, the state’s capability – defined as the ability to undertake and promote collective actions efficiently – must be increased. This basic message translates into a two-part strategy to make every state a more credible, effective partner in its country’s development

c. A strategy is to raise state capability by reinvigorating public institutions, which means designing effective rules and restraints, to check arbitrary state actions and combat entrenched corruption.

d. Many states try to do too much with few resources and little capability, and often do more harm than good.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to interests choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Theodore Benditt noted that some writers take the concept of interests to be the central notion in politics, and he enumerated seven accounts of interests in political theory.

b. Benditt’s seven accounts of interests in political theory include feelings or attitudes and wants.

c. Benditt’s seven accounts of interests in political theory include relationships or communities.

d. Benditt’s seven accounts of interests in political theory include changes that affect one advantageously or disadvantageously.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s Glossary of Conceptualizing Interests in Policymaking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The iron triangle is the stable and cozy relationships among congressional committees, executive agencies, and economic interest groups.

b. A policy community can be viewed as the actors in a policy network, who share at least some common language and conceptual reference points but who may be opponents on the issue.

c. An advocacy coalition is a group of individuals and/or organizations that have agreed to support a position that advances the public interest rather than private interests.

d. An epistemic community is a concept originally developed in international relations to characterize the influence of international groups of scientific experts on policymaking.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s aspects of problem definition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Leslie Pal says that policymaking is, in large measure, about trying to solve problems and so the nature of those problems – how they are defined – is central to the entire process.

b. Key aspects of problem definition include causality (what factors lie behind the problem) and severity (how bad is the problem likely to get).

c. Key aspects of problem definition include incidence (what is the scope of impact), novelty (is it new), and proximity (how close is the problem).

d. Key aspects of problem definition include crisis (how pressing is the problem), problem population (who will be targeted in the policy response), and solutions (what can be done).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to issue framing choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Issue framing is a way of depicting a policy issue or problem in broad and understandable if somewhat simplified terms.

b. The first dimension of issue framing is analytical and emphasizes the logical elements that make up an argument or claim.

c. The second dimension of issue framing is part of policy communications, combining effective arguments with powerful rhetorical tools such as metaphors and labels.

d. Issue framing cannot be applied to complex issues that cross multiple policy fields.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy images choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy images are a mixture of empirical information and emotive appeals that explain an issue and justify the public policy response.

b. Most people, even in cases where they are quite interested in a given policy issue, will tend to summarize it using policy images.

c. A policy image is an identifiable method through which collective action is structured to address a public problem.

d. Policy images give a sense of the tone of the issue in positive or negative terms.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy window choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy windows are defined as unpredictable openings in the policy process that create the possibility for influence over the direction and outcome of that process.

b. A great deal of the agenda-setting process is contingent on unpredictable factors and personalities – i.e., to the opening of policy windows.

c. Windows sometimes open regularly but who jumps through successfully or not is still a matter of chance and skill.

d. A policy window is a mixture of empirical information and emotive appeals that explain the issue and justify the public policy response.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Lasswell’s policy sciences choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The social sciences, particularly economics, political science, public administration, and planning, developed in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

b. Harold Lasswell (1902-1978) and his colleagues were among the first to advance the idea that these disciplines could be integrated into something distinct – the policy sciences.

c. Lasswell argued for a distinct role for policy analysts.

d. Lasswell argued that the policy sciences should integrate the other social sciences in a multidisciplinary enterprise devoted to dealing with public problems and the policy processes of democracy.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to typologies of policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Most classifications of policy instruments stress the degree of coercion involved.

b. A policy tool is defined as an identifiable method through which collective action is structured to address a public problem.

c. Policy instruments are defined as the set of techniques by which governmental authorities wield their power in attempting to ensure support and effect or prevent social change.

d. A policy instrument is defined as the process of choosing the most appropriate tool to deal with the policy problem as it has been defined.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s classification of policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. For expenditure-based instruments, governments are not trying to achieve their objectives or outcomes by changing the information that undergirds behaviour, but rather the calculus of costs, benefits, and financial resources.

b. With regulatory policy instruments, governments achieve the conditions or service goals they have in mind by marshalling their own resources toward those ends.

c. Doing nothing may appear as a nondecision, however, a deliberate choice not to intervene, made after an analysis of the problem, should be considered a policy decision.

d. Information-based policy instruments include government-directed attempts at influencing people through transfer of knowledge, communication of reasoned argument, and moral suasion in order to achieve a policy result.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy design and social values choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pal suggests that there does appear to be a tilt – though only a slight one and with some contradictions – to the social values reflected in the way in which instruments and policy design have been chosen.

b. The tilt of the toolbox has been to maximize individual choice in programming and societal co-production with more careful, if possibly more extreme, government intervention than anything seen in the recent past.

c. Community and social cohesion have become watchwords for government as they move towards a society with less intervention and more individual choice.

d. Policy implementation that depends on market mechanisms and pure individual choice will encourage citizens to see their relations to government and to each other as primarily ones of exchange.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to rational decision making model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The steps in the rational model are choosing models, identifying needs, aligning objectives with needs, and selecting options.

b. The rational model has embedded within it a strong concern with efficiency.

c. Pure rationality in decisionmaking is not possible and people have to make decisions under various constraints.

d. Making decisions rationally is not the same as making reasonable decisions – a reasonable or good decision is defined less by the process that produced it than by its appropriateness as a solution to the initial problem.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Lindblom’s incrementalism and muddling through choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Charles Lindblom argued that the unforgiving strictures of rational decisionmaking were so unrealistic in terms of the cognitive and political situation faced by most decisionmakers that they made choices by “muddling through.”

b. Lindblom argued that in the real world of politics and administration there are multiple decisionmakers with conflicting perspectives and priorities.

c. Lindblom argued that policymaking is a struggle over the criteria of social classification, the boundaries of problem categories, and the intersubjective interpretation of common experiences.

d. Lindblom argued that decisions get made on the basis of successive limited comparisons.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.08.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to postmodernist critiques of rational decision making choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Recent research suggests that if you can assemble a diverse group of people who possess varying degrees of knowledge and insight, you’re better off entrusting it with major decisions rather than leaving them in the hands of one or two people.

b. Postmodern analysis entails, among other things, the critical study of the structure of argument and discourse in policy analysis, the role of values, and the deep impact of positivism through its associated logic of technocratic mastery.

c. The rational model presumes that there are such things as “facts,” but postmodernists argue that facts are always constructed through values and perceptions, or more accurately, through deep theories that structure our cognition of reality.

d. Postmodernist scholars suggest that that decisions get made on the basis of “successive limited comparisons.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 9: Forty Concepts in Implementation and Delivery (40 questions)

CCQ206.09.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to implementation vs policy design choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. It is possible to have good design and poor implementation but not good implementation with poor design since design precedes implementation.

b. A well-designed policy with good implementation is almost a definition of success – a good idea well executed.

c. Implementation and policy design are conceptually distinct, though they overlap in practice – design is the blueprint for the policy and implementation is its execution.

d. The smart designer builds considerations about implementation into the policy design from the beginning.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to implementation theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The conventional work on implementation has tended to highlight its multidimensionality, difficulty, ambiguity, and a growing realization of its importance.

b. The factors that we consider to be important in implementation depend on the way in which we perceive governance.

c. Like much else in policymaking, the practical world of implementation has not changed in recent years.

d. Implementation can be viewed primarily as a political process of bargaining among actors who, while not necessarily equal in resources, can each affect outcomes.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pressman and Wildavsky’s implementation model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Pressman-Wildavsky implementation model features a chain of statistically independent nodes or clearance points with an attached probability.

b. The implementation process is marked by a sequence of tasks that have to be completed or agreements struck before the process can move on.

c. The Pressman-Wildavsky model assumes a 99 percent probability of agreement on each clearance point in the implementation process.

d. Clearance points are not always independent; they might be packaged or bundled in ways so that one clearance ripples through several others.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Hogwood and Gunn’s elements for successful implementation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Hogwood and Gunn enumerated the presumed requirements that are implicit in idealized models of implementation.

b. Hogwood and Gunn’s presumed requirements include agreed objectives, adequate time, and sufficient resources.

c. Hogwood and Gunn’s presumed requirements include valid theory, causal connections that are reasonable and direct, and compliance without sabotage or rebellion.

d. Hogwood and Gunn conclude that, given the unrealistic nature of the presumed requirements, perfect implementation almost never happens and that some degree of failure is almost inevitable.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Sabatier and Muzmanian’s framework of the implementation process choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Sabatier and Mazmanian include many of the same variables as Hogwood and Gunn.

b. Sabatier and Mazmanian include legislative and institutional variables, for example, the statute should be clear, and the implementing agency well resourced.

c. Sabatier and Mazmanian include socio-economic and political variables that determine the fate of implementation and these overlap in part with forces that serve to maintain the sense in the public and the political system that the problem to which the policy is being directed is important and requires attention.

d. Sabatier and Mazmanian conclude that the chances of successful implementation are maximized if there are clear objectives, sympathetic agencies, authority, resources, fidelity to statute and rules, leadership, and public support.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Bardach’s implementation game choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Bardach uses the notion of games as a way of understanding the essentially defensive nature of implementation.

b. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that rely on complex management systems, large organizations, and multiple clearances.

c. Bardach’s strategies include avoiding implementation designs that work through the market because the dynamics of the public and private spheres are fundamentally at odds.

d. Bardach’s strategies include engaging in scenario-writing to work out different possible consequences of a string of actions and interactions.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Eggers and O’Leary’s project management framework for implementation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Eggers and O’Leary propose that implementers adopt a project management mindset or discipline.

b. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommendations include setting goals and timelines and breaking large projects and initiatives into more manageable chunks that are less complex and less risky.

c. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommendations include identifying stakeholders and their needs and expectations and developing a change management strategy to increase support.

d. Eggers and O’Leary’s recommend seeking out leading edge technology to stay ahead of the implementation curve.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to principal-agent problem choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The principal-agent problem is what develops when a principal creates an environment in which an agent’s incentives don’t align with its own.

b. Much of the principal-agent problem has to do with information asymmetry and incentives.

c. The onus is on the agent to create incentives for the principal to ensure they act as the agent wants.

d. An example of the principle-agent problem is when the agent knows more than the typical principle, and the agent has the ability to charge at their own discretion.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public choice theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public choice transfers the rational actor model of economic theory to the realm of politics.

b. Public choice theory tries to determine the behavioural choice of the public if the public behaved as a rational actor.

c. Public choice, like the economic model of rational behavior on which it rests, assumes that people are guided chiefly by their own self-interests.

d. Public choice theory is the application of the theories and methods of economics to the analysis of political behavior.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Allison’s three models of government action choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1969 article, Conceptual models and the Cuban Missile Crisis, Graham Allison set out three models or lenses for analyzing government action.

b. Model 1 suggests that the state acts as a unitary rational actor to make decisions.

c. Model 2 suggests that the sub-units of the state act according to pre-determined procedures to produce an output and the government can only dictate policy options that are already in the standard operating procedures.

d. Model 3 suggests that those in charge of various state responsibilities make predictable arguments based on their present position with policy outcomes being the result of negotiations among these leaders.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Fayol’s theory of administration choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The administrative theory expounded by Henri Fayol (1841-1925) encompassed five functions of management – planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, controlling – and was summarized in 14 principles of management.

b. Fayol’s principles of management included division of work, authority and responsibility, discipline, unity of command, subordination, and centralization.

c. Fayol’s principles of management included fair remuneration, equity, initiative, and esprit de corps.

d. Fayol’s principles of management included technological innovation, transparency, and accountability.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Niskanen’s budget maximizing model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The budget maximizing model developed by William Niskanen in the 1970s argued that rational bureaucrats will always and everywhere seek to increase their budgets in order to increase their own power, thereby contributing strongly to state growth and potentially reducing social efficiency.

b. The model contemplates a bureaucrat who heads a public administration department, and who will try to maximize the department’s budget, thus increasing its salary and prestige.

c. The legislature, or Government, defines the department’s budget, depending on the quantity which it supplies, and the more services the department supplies, the higher will its budget be.

d. Niskanen’s model says that, as in a typical private-sector utility maximizing model, the department would expand services (and budgets) to the point that the marginal cost and marginal benefits are equated.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Downs’ typology of officials choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In his classic 1964 article, Inside Bureaucracy, Anthony Downs sets out five types of government officials.

b. Downs’ five types of government officials include climbers, conservers, and advocates.

c. Downs’ five types of government officials include zealots and statesmen.

d. Downs suggested three key determinants of an official’s type: psychological predispositions; the nature of the position occupied by the official; and the probability that an official actually attain the goals associated with the particular type toward which he is psychologically inclined.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s good governance benchmarks choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Leslie Pal concludes his book, Beyond Policy Analysis, with a set of suggested benchmarks of good governance that he believes will not guarantee good policy design but will certainly contribute to it.

b. Pal’s benchmarks include training of policy development staff, well-organized information and research resources, and a balance of scanning and service orientations.

c. Pal’s benchmarks include horizontal coordination, rigour and honesty, and transparency and consultation.

d. Pal concludes that if the benchmarks in b. and c. are in place then there will be little need for a challenge function.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the crucial role of communication choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. To maintain the integrity of an evidence-based approach to policy analysis, it is crucial to distinguish the objective function of policy design from the subjective function of policy communication.

b. Policy is inseparable from communication, which is the lubricant for every phase of the cycle.

c. Public policy is not only made; it is sold, and sold to a large number of disparate and different audiences.

d. Complementing the logic of arguments is the art of issue framing, a deliberate technique for depicting a policy issue in understandable terms.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to consulting stakeholders and engaging citizens choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. With consultations, the challenge is balancing public demands with the realities of hard decisions.

b. Policymakers genuinely believe that consultation in policy design and partnership in policy delivery are important aspects of their jobs.

c. The shift to “engagement” from “consultation” has become possible because of the increasing trust that citizens have toward government.

d. Consultation is usually focused on the operational and programmatic level, as opposed to broad values or directions for policy development.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Dunn’s four-stage process of communicating policy-relevant knowledge choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. William Dunn argues that the communication of policy-relevant knowledge is a four-stage process consisting of policy analysis, materials development, interaction, and knowledge utilization.

b. Dunn argues that the policy analyst at the centre of the cycle and supporting each stage, though only indirectly when it comes to knowledge utilization.

c. Dunn puts a strong emphasis on the range of techniques available for everything from problem definition to recommendations (including cost-benefit analysis), time series analysis, and the structure of policy arguments.

d. For Dunn, the knowledge utilization stage includes agenda-setting, policy formulation, policy adoption, policy implementation, and policy assessment.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term policy issue paper choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy issue paper is best thought of as the functional equivalent of an executive summary of a policy memorandum.

b. A policy issue paper is a relatively lengthy, detailed, and technical analyses of a policy problem, with consideration of options and recommendations.

c. A typical question addressed in a policy issue paper is “in what ways can the policy problem be formulated?”

d. A typical question addressed in a policy issue paper is “what goals and objectives should be pursued in solving the problem?”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the role of ideas in policy making choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The stream of work in the policy sciences that emphasizes the role of ideas claims that there are no such things as “facts” or “reality.”

b. Ideas are not merely individual biases, but collective ideational frameworks that help policy analysts, decisionmakers, and other actors make sense of the world.

c. A policy paradigm is a framework of ideas and standards that specifies not only the goals of policy and the kind of instruments that can be used to attain them, but also the very nature of the problems they are meant to be addressing.

d. Depending on how deep these ideas are buried, and how fundamental they are for our interpretation of the world, they may not even be noticed.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to postmodernist policy analysis choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The postmodernist policy analysis is also known as post-positivist, or constructivist analysis of policy design and implementation.

b. The postmodernist approach argues that our ideas, our beliefs, our norms, even our language, structure perception so deeply that we can perceive only hard facts.

c. For postmodernists, embracing the rational model means elevating experts, which, in turn, means choking democracy or the meaningful participation of non-expert, ordinary citizens.

d. For postmodernists, the categories of thought behind reasoned analysis are themselves constructed in political struggle, and nonviolent political conflict is conducted primarily through reasoned analysis, which means that reasoned analysis is necessarily political.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.21. Among the statements a-d pertaining to symbolic representation and narrative choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Policy communication is not only about analysis, but about persuasion through language and rhetorical strategies, whether deliberate or through unconscious art and instinct.

b. Deborah Stone highlights four modes of symbolic representation: narrative stories, synechdoches, metaphors, and ambiguity.

c. Narratives are stories that draw on the tropes of deep human experience: decline, loss, survival, triumph.

d. Synechdoche is the representation of the whole by a part or by a single instance such as representing disability, which has many dimensions, by an image of a person in a wheelchair.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.22. Among the statements a-d pertaining to media bias and agenda setting choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public policy is shaped and fashioned by a host of actors – ordinary citizens, politicians, public officials, think tanks, academic institutions, government relations experts, nongovernmental organizations – but debates over policy rarely take place directly, and most citizens get exposed to these debates through the media, typically television news, magazines, newspapers, and so on.

b. A relevant question is whether these media simply and faithfully channel those debates to the public, or whether they have their own biases and agendas, and consequently an independent effect by shaping how people think about policy issues.

c. Recent research suggests that the agenda-setting power of the media has been somewhat exaggerated.

d. There is no analytic basis for the concern that modern media, especially television, operate on a logic that is rapidly dumbing down the citizenry and eroding public trust and civic engagement.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.23. Among the statements a-d pertaining to communication nudges and behavioural economics choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The brain’s automatic system is quick and feels instinctive, whereas the reflective system is more self-conscious and calculating.

b. Richard Thaler and Cass Sunstein argue for communications mechanisms that will reduce biases and allow people to make more effective decisions.

c. If people are given the choice of donating when the amounts on offer are $100, $200, and $300, they will tend to donate more than if the choice is $50, $75, or $100.

d. Since human beings make errors, there should be feedback mechanisms to let them know something is going wrong.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.24. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pal’s comparison of academic and policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Academic research usually explores theoretical issues and is curiosity driven while public policy research usually addresses a real-world problem and is aimed at finding solutions that work.

b. Whereas academic research is usually subject to deadlines such as those imposed by granting agencies or publishers, public policy research is not subject to such artificial limits and takes as long as needed to get the answer right.

c. Academic research is usually conducted in universities or think tanks while policy research can be conducted within government, and outside in think tanks, NGOs, businesses and media organizations.

d. The audience for academic research is typically other academics, experts, and specialists in the field while the audience for policy research is typically government officials, both senior appointed and elected, and the broad, interested public.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.25. Among the statements a-d pertaining to doing nothing as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Failing to act on a perceived policy problem is sure sign of lack of policy capacity.

b. Problem-related rationales can occur when there is either no problem after all or a problem not within the government’s current priorities, jurisdiction, or capacities.

c. Rationales comprise a coherent set of considerations that should be part of any systematic process of instrument choice, even though doing nothing does not seem intuitively to fit the notion of an instrument or tool.

d. A deliberate choice not to intervene, made after an analysis of the problem, should be considered a policy decision – what is called a static response.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.26. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using information-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A key principle behind information-based instruments is that human behaviour is largely based on knowledge, beliefs, and values.

b. Information-based instruments are considered the most coercive of all policy instruments.

c. Information-based policy instruments can include flyers, pamphlets, booklets, training, advertisements, reports, websites, and portals.

d. Information-based policy instruments comprise government-directed attempts at influencing people through transfer of knowledge, and communication of reasoned argument.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.27. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using expenditure-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. With expenditure-based policy instruments, governments are not trying to achieve their objectives or outcomes by changing the information that undergirds behaviour, but rather the calculus of costs, benefits, and financial resources.

b. In Canadian usage, contributions are similar to grants but with fewer conditions attached.

c. Expenditure instruments pose substantial management challenges in terms of ensuring that conditions are met and monies are spent appropriately.

d. From the policymaker’s point of view, virtually every policy instrument involves expenditure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.28. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using taxation-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Tax expenditures accomplish much the same thing as contributions or subsidies, but through the mechanism of reducing taxes for specific activities and thereby increasing the benefits.

b. A tax used as a policy instrument and not simply to raise revenue is a device to make targeted behaviours more expensive and hence, less attractive.

c. Through user charges and service fees, special benefits enjoyed by only a minority of citizens are paid for in whole or in part by that minority.

d. Tax expenditures are attractive for many governments because, with cash-based accounting, they do not affect the deficit.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.29. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using regulation-based policy instruments choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Regulation draws on the most fundamental resource a government has – its capacity to command and prohibit.

b. Affirmative/promoting uses of regulation include permissions, licences, recognitions, and self-regulation.

c. Regulatory instruments are used to define norms, acceptable behavior, or to limit activities in a given society.

d. A species of regulation is government-sanctioned self-regulation, where the state delegates its regulatory power not to a state agency but to a nongovernmental organization or association, for example a professional body.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.30. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using direct provision as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Any service directly provided by government, from garbage collection to education, will involve the expenditure of often substantial amounts of money.

b. Direct provision draws on the most fundamental resource a government has: its capacity to command and prohibit.

c. Direct provision is less an alternative to spending money than it is a means of spending money that reflects a different policy logic.

d. Governments can decide to achieve the conditions or service goals they have in mind by marshalling their own resources toward those ends.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.31. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using partnership as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Partnership can be defined as the pattern of relations among members of the policy community.

b. If partnerships are conceived of as a policy instrument, then they will not simply appear; they will have to be created.

c. An interesting and new example of creative partnerships are social impact bonds, where government social service agencies issue the bonds, which are bought by private investors.

d. The basic logic is that government can either get out of some of the things that it has traditionally done and leave them to the private or nonprofit sectors, or it can continue to do those things in partnerships with those sectors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.32. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using internationalization as a policy instrument choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Department of Global Affairs tries to coordinate foreign policy issues at the national level.

b. It is not simply a matter of single policy fields being projected upward to the international level but linkages across policy fields being developed by international agencies and communities of practice.

c. International agreements and international negotiations are becoming a routine instrument in the pursuit of domestic policy.

d. With the internationalization of so many policy fields, the organization of the foreign policy dossier calls for the centralization of a single foreign affairs department to take issues from all other policy fields.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.33. Among the statements a-d pertaining to using procedural and institutional policy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizational instruments take the state itself – its structure and management – as a target of public policy.

b. Governments increasingly come to rely on the use of a different set of procedural tools designed to indirectly affect outcomes through the manipulation of policy processes.

c. Sustainable governance involves a combination of governmental and nongovernmental institutions, processes, instruments, and actors, it entails more than simply a question of instrument choice.

d. Instruments are aimed less at delivery of policy and programs than at the restructuring of relationships either within the state or between the state and social partners.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.34. Among the statements a-d pertaining to network targets choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organizations and individuals should be granted high levels of autonomy and legitimacy as policy actors in their own right, not merely as recipients of government programs.

b. This approach requires a greater tolerance for potential failure and the possibility that partners will both make mistakes and have to learn from them.

c. The role of government is to facilitate and empower rather than to deliver and direct.

d. Policy instruments in this category have the character of mandates rather than inducements.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.35. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy community choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy community can be defined as the actors in a policy network, presumably those who share at least some common language and conceptual reference points but who may be opponents on the issue.

b. Policy communities are groupings of government agencies, pressure groups, media people, and individuals, including academics, who, for various reasons, have an interest in a particular policy field and attempt to influence it.

c. Paul Pross argued that most of the inside players in a policy community try to keep debate within the realm of the technical and routine, and that the attentive public are the outsiders whose main influence on the process is to generate ideas and discussion through conferences, publications, and occasional lobbying.

d. In Pross’s view, the policy community is actually an insulating device to keep a grip on the process.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.36. Among the statements a-d pertaining to advocacy coalitions choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A distinctive feature of the advocacy coalition framework proposed by Paul Sabatier is its emphasis on the role of ideas and values in the policy process.

b. The first element in the belief system – very difficult to change through policy arguments – is the deep or normative core, which consists of fundamental axioms about human nature, justice, and priorities among values such as security, health, and life.

c. The second set of ideas is the near (policy) core, and it comprises notions about the proper scope of government activity, distributions of power and authority, orientations on substantive policy conflicts, and basic choices about policy instruments. These are difficult to change but can be altered if experience seriously differs from theory.

d. The final set contains secondary aspects and consists of instrumental decisions needed to implement the policy core, such as decisions about administrative rules, budgetary allocations, and statutory interpretation. These are comparatively easy to shift or change and constitute the bulk of technical policy argumentation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.37. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy networks choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A policy network can be defined as the pattern of relations among members of the policy community.

b. The importance of policy networks and communities continues to grow but the realities of the policy process continue to change the nature and dynamic of those communities.

c. Networks are important today not only because they represent interests that have to be integrated into the policy process, or information that is crucial to analysis, or even important loci of opposition, but because they are important sinews for implementation and delivery.

d. Networks are based on formal agreements about objectives, resource sharing, and coordinating procedures.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.38. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Kernaghan’s classification of partnerships choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In an operational partnership the money or other forms of support for projects is managed by a third party.

b. In a consultative partnership there is active exchanging of advice and information.

c. In an collaborative partnership there is a sharing of both work and decision-making.

d. Partnerships can be a means of improving service delivery, getting better feedback, and encouraging civic engagement.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.39. Among the statements a-d pertaining to partnerships and horizontal management choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Horizontal management is the best way to approach every policy issue, since it encourages collaboration between all government departments.

b. It is best to think of horizontal management as a continuum running from a minimalist to a maximalist level of coordination.

c. Governments around the world are increasingly concerned with policy coherence and developing horizontality.

d. Interest in horizontality is extending to all levels of government bureaucracy, with the growing expectation that government departments will work more closely and collaboratively.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.09.40. Among the statements a-d pertaining to public-private partnership models choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A public-private partnership is a cooperative venture between the public and private sectors, built on the expertise of each partner, that best meets clearly defined public needs through the appropriate allocation of resources, risks and rewards.

b. In the Finance-Only model, a private entity, usually a financial services company, funds a project directly or uses various mechanisms such as a long-term lease or bond issue.

c. In the Design-Build-Finance-Maintain-Operate model, the private sector designs, builds, and finances an asset, provides hard and/or soft facility management services as well as operations under a long-term agreement.

d. In the Concession model, a private sector concessionaire undertakes investments and operates the facility for a fixed period of time after which the ownership reverts back to the public sector.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 10: Fifty Concepts in Economic Analysis (50 questions)

CCQ206.10.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to marginal and marginalism choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Marginal can be defined as the difference made by one extra unit of something.

b. The marginal cost (or whatever) can be very different from the average cost (or whatever), which simply divides total costs (or whatever) by the total number of units produced (or whatever).

c. Sensible choice usually requires comparing average benefit (or utility) and average cost.

d. One of the benefits of training in economic analysis is learning to recognize that small incremental changes can matter enormously and that thinking “at the margin” can lead to better economic decision making than thinking about the averages.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to unintended consequences choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The law of unintended consequences is that actions of people – and especially of government – always have effects that are unanticipated or unintended.

b. Economists and other social scientists have heeded the power of the law of unintended consequences for centuries; for just as long, politicians and popular opinion have largely ignored it.

c. The nineteenth century French economic journalist Frédéric Bastiat wrote: “There is only one difference between a bad economist and a good one: the bad economist confines himself to the visible effect; the good economist takes into account both the effect that can be seen and those effects that must be foreseen.”

d. One of the benefits of training in economic analysis is to be better able to anticipate and articulate the unintended consequences of a policy initiative.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to “There ain’t no such thing as a free lunch” choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The term “free lunch” is used to describe a situation in which a good or service is received at no cost, with the true cost of the good or service ultimately borne by some party, which may even include the recipient.

b. “There ain’t no such thing as a free lunch” expresses the idea that even if something seems like it is free, there is always a cost, no matter how indirect or hidden.

c. One of the benefits of training in economic analysis is learning to account for the indirect and hidden costs of a policy initiative.

d. Invocations of “no free lunch” are more likely to be used by advocates of an increased public sector role than those who purport to represent the interests of taxpayers and businesses.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to market failure choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Market failure occurs when a market left to itself does not allocate resources efficiently.

b. Abuse of market power (when a single buyer or seller can exert significant influence over prices or output) is one of the four main sorts of market failure.

c. The existence of externalities and the need to provide public goods are two of the four main sorts of market failure.

d. The fourth source of market failure is uncertainty and incomplete or asymmetric information.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to economics and ideology choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Given the scientific nature of the subject matter, economics and economists are rarely associated with ideology, that is to a set of ideas and beliefs associated with values and politics.

b. In economics, the evidence rarely delivers clear answers.

c. Lack of definitive evidence leads to ongoing disputes among economists, and since ideology influences the questions researchers ask, these disputes are often viewed along ideological lines.

d. One of the benefits of training in economic analysis is to be better able to see the influence of ideology on economic assertions made by commentators and organizations.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to behavioural economics choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Behavioural economics tries to augment or replace traditional ideas of economic rationality (homo economicus) with decision-making models borrowed from psychology.

b. Examples of psychological phenomena relevant to behavioural economics include cognitive dissonance (holding on to a belief plainly at odds with new evidence, usually because the belief has been held and cherished for a long time) and status quo bias (being willing to take bigger gambles to maintain the status quo than to acquire it in the first place).

c. Examples of psychological phenomena relevant to behavioural economics include anchoring (being overly influenced by outside suggestion) and hindsight bias (once something happens people overestimate the extent to which they could have predicted it).

d. Although traditional utility theory assumes that people make individual decisions in the context of the big picture, psychologists have found that they generally compartmentalise, often on superficial grounds, and then make choices about things in one particular mental compartment without taking account of the implications for things in other compartments.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the demand curve choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The demand curve shows how much of a good people are willing to buy at different prices.

b. Reading the demand curve vertically, the it shows the maximum price buyers are willing to pay for a given quantity.

c. Reading the demand curve horizontally, it shows the quantity buyers are willing to purchase at different prices.

d. A demand curve is a function that shows the quantity demanded at different prices.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term market equilibrium choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. At equilibrium, the price is stable and gains from trade are maximized.

b. The equilibrium price is the result of competition amongst buyers and sellers.

c. Buyers compete directly with sellers and vice versa to achieve market equilibrium.

d. When the price is not at equilibrium, a shortage or a surplus occurs.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the elasticity of demand choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive the quantity demanded is to a change in price.

b. For goods with fewer substitutes, consumers find it hard to adjust quantity demanded when prices change, making demand inelastic.

c. Demand is considered inelastic if the absolute value of elasticity is less than 1; demand is elastic when the absolute value of elasticity is greater than 1.

d. The narrower the classification (e.g., Bayer aspirin), the less likely consumers will be able to find a substitute, making demand inelastic.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to commodity taxes choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A commodity tax is a tax on goods or services.

b. Commodity taxation raises revenue and creates lost gains from trade (dead weight loss).

c. The economic incidence of the tax does not depend on the legal incidence of the tax.

d. Who pays the tax does not depend on the relative elasticities of demand and supply.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to subsidies choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A subsidy can be thought of as a negative, or reverse, tax where the government gives money to consumers or producers.

b. Subsidies are preferred over taxes because they create efficient trades and minimize deadweight loss.

c. Who benefits from the subsidy does depend on the relative elasticities of demand and supply.

d. Who gets the subsidy does not depend on who receives the cheque from the government.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the burden of a tax choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The economic incidence (who bears the burden) of a tax differs from the legal incidence (who writes the cheque to the government) in ways that depend on the relative elasticities of supply and demand.

b. The more elastic side of the market will pay a smaller share of the tax (smaller burden).

c. The less elastic (more inelastic) side of the market will pay a greater share of the tax (greater burden).

d. These principles imply that, because the supply of labour tends to be more elastic than the demand for labour, the burden of payroll taxes falls primarily on employers.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the benefit of a subsidy choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The economic incidence of a subsidy is different from the legal incidence in ways that depend on the relative elasticity of demand and supply.

b. The more elastic side of the market will receive a smaller share of the subsidy.

c. The more elastic side of the market will receive a larger share of the subsidy.

d. The proposition “no elasticity = no entry” can be used to think about who receives the benefit of a subsidy because, where supply is highly inelastic relative to the demand, other suppliers cannot enter the market to share the subsidy and most of a producer subsidy will stay with the producers.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to price as a signal and incentive choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Price can be viewed as a signal wrapped up in an incentive.

b. An increase in the price of oil is a signal on how to respond and gives users of oil an incentive to respond – by using less oil or substituting lower-cost alternatives for oil.

c.  The price system allows for people with dispersed knowledge and information about the production of any commodity to coordinate global economic activity.

d. Friederich Hayek has written that the most significant fact about the price system is “the economy of knowledge with which it operates … only the most essential information is passed on only to those concerned.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to price ceilings choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Price ceilings create wasteful lines and other search costs.

b. Price ceilings create shortages.

c. Price ceilings lead to reductions in quality.

d. Price ceilings create no beneficiaries.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to price floors choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A minimum wage is an example of a price floor.

b. A minimum wage creates a surplus.

c. A minimum wage creates lost gains from trade.

d. A price floor leads to reductions in quality.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to why governments enact price controls choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Despite the negative consequences, governments frequently adopt price controls.

b. Price controls are often popular, at least when initially implemented.

c. Price controls usually become widely unpopular in the longer run.

d. The economic and social costs associated with price controls are less visible than the benefits, particularly to those without training in economics.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term externality choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An externality is an economic side-effect – a cost or benefit arising from an activity and not reflected fully in prices.

b. An externality is an economic side-effect that occurs when production or consumption of one party affects the production or consumption of another party.

c. An example of an externality is how pollution from one company affects the health of individuals and the environment.

d. Getting a flu shot is an example of an externality because it provides benefit beyond the individual receiving the shot.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the distinction between command and control solutions versus taxes and subsidies choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In comparing public policy options for addressing an externality (such as air pollution from electricity generation) Pigouvian taxes and subsidies are more efficient than using a command and control regulatory approach (such as mandating the maximum energy consumption of washing machines) if there are many ways to technical ways to address the externality.

b. Command and control may be the best solution if the best way to address the externality is well known and success requires strong compliance.

c. Pigouvian taxes and subsidies allow producers and users to find the lowest cost ways to reduce their production or use of a particular commodity.

d. Pigouvian taxes and subsidies would likely have enabled the isolation and vaccinate strategy to eliminate smallpox more quickly and at lower cost than the command and control approach used health authorities around the world.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to social surplus choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Social surplus is ultimately what we care about because we care about not just consumers and producers, we care about everyone.

b. When there are significant external costs or benefits the market will not maximize social surplus.

c. Social surplus is the benefit produced by people working together.

d. Social surplus is the sum of consumer surplus, producer surplus, and bystander surplus.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.21. Among the statements a-d pertaining to efficient equilibrium choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. When there is a significant external cost associated with the activity, the efficient equilibrium will be different from the market equilibrium.

b. Efficient equilibrium as the point at which private demand intersects the social cost curve.

c. When there is a significant external cost associated with the activity, efficient equilibrium is the intersection of the demand curve and the supply curve that reflects the private cost of provision.

d. There will be a deadweight loss if the market equilibrium is different from the efficient equilibrium.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.22. Among the statements a-d pertaining to deadweight loss choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Deadweight loss is the extent to which the value and impact of a tax, tax relief, or subsidy is reduced because of side effects.

b. Deadweight loss occurs when there is significant external cost associated with the activity because efficient and market equilibrium are the same.

c. Deadweight loss can be reduced through well designed public policies.

d. On a graph of quantity vs. price, the deadweight loss is the triangle formed from the difference between the efficient equilibrium on the social cost curve and the market equilibrium.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.23. Among the statements a-d pertaining to transaction costs choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Transaction costs are the costs incurred during the process of buying or selling, on top of the price of whatever is changing hands.

b. Transaction costs include search and information costs, such as those in determining that the required good is available on the market and which has the lowest price.

c. Transaction costs include bargaining costs – the costs required to come to an acceptable agreement with the other party to the transaction, drawing up an appropriate contract and so on.

d. Transaction costs do not include policing and enforcement – the costs of making sure the other party sticks to the terms of the contract, and taking appropriate action (often through the legal system) if this turns out not to be the case.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.24. Among the statements a-d pertaining to average cost choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Average cost as the opportunity cost incurred per unit of good produced.

b. Average cost = total cost / quantity of output.

c. Average total cost is per unit total cost, or total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

d. Average total cost is the sum of average fixed cost and average variable cost.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.25. Among the statements a-d pertaining to marginal cost choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The marginal cost of production is the change in total cost that comes from making or producing one additional item.

b. When the average cost declines, the marginal cost is more than the average cost.

c. Increasing production may increase or decrease the marginal cost, because the marginal cost includes all costs such as labour, materials, and the cost of infrastructure.

d. Perfectly competitive firms continue producing output until marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.26. Among the statements a-d pertaining to fixed costs choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Fixed costs are production costs that do not change when the quantity of output produced changes.

b. Fixed costs are crucial to account for in determining the number of units to produce to maximize profit in the short term.

c. Fixed costs are not permanently fixed; they will change over time, but are fixed in relation to the quantity of production for the relevant period.

d. By definition, there are no fixed costs in the long run, because the long run is a sufficient period of time for all short-run fixed inputs to become variable.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.27. Among the statements a-d pertaining to variable costs choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Variable costs as the part of a firm’s production costs that changes according to how much output it produces.

b. Variable costs are not affected by the level or nature of fixed costs.

c. In the long run, most costs can be varied.

d. Variable costs are the sum of marginal costs over all units produced.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.28. Among the statements a-d pertaining to sunk costs choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Sunk costs are costs that once incurred can never be recovered.

b. Sunk costs need to be fully accounted for and incorporated into decisions about future spending and production.

c. Since decision-making only affects the future course of business, sunk costs should be irrelevant in the decision-making process.

d. The sunk cost fallacy is people being more likely to continue with a project if they have already invested a lot of money, time, or effort in it, even when continuing is effectively “throwing good money after bad.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.29. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the production possibility frontier choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The production possibility frontier (PPF) is a curve depicting all maximum output possibilities for two goods, given a set of inputs consisting of resources and other factors.

b. The PPF measures the efficiency in which two commodities can be produced together, helping managers and leaders decide what mix of commodities are most beneficial.

c. The PPF drives home the idea that opportunity costs normally come up when an economic organization with limited resources must decide between two alternatives.

d. If a government organization is deciding between the production mix of textbooks and computers, and it can produce either 40 textbooks and 7 computers or 70 text books and 3 computers, it’s up to that organization to determine what it needs more. In this example, the opportunity cost of producing an additional 30 textbooks is 4 computers.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.30. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creative destruction choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Creative destruction is the term coined by Joseph Schumpeter (1883-1950) to describe the market’s messy way of delivering progress.

b. Schumpeter and the economists who adopt his succinct summary of the free market’s ceaseless churning echo capitalism’s critics in acknowledging that lost jobs, ruined companies, and vanishing industries are inherent parts of the growth system.

c. The social dislocation accompanying the processes of creative destruction can undermine public confidence in the political and economic system.

d. Societies that have allowed creative destruction to operate have grown more productive and richer with most of their citizens enjoying the benefits of new and better products, shorter work weeks, better jobs, and higher living standards.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.31. Among the statements a-d pertaining to comparative advantage choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Comparative advantage is one of the oldest theories in economics, usually ascribed to David Ricardo, and underpins the economic case for free trade.

b. The principle of comparative advantage illustrates that countries can gain from trading with each other even if one of them is more efficient in the production of all goods and services.

c. It is impossible for a country to have no comparative advantage in anything.

d. In a bilateral relationship the dynamics of trade ensure that each country’s comparative advantage remains stable over time.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.32. Among the statements a-d pertaining to absolute advantage choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Absolute advantage is the simplest yardstick of economic performance – if one person, firm or country can produce more of something with the same amount of effort and resources, they have an absolute advantage over other producers.

b. Trade between countries is based on absolute advantage with the country with the highest absolute advantage in producing a given commodity tending to dominate global markets in that commodity.

c. Absolute advantage can change dramatically over time.

d. Being the best at something does not mean that doing that thing is the best way to use your scarce economic resources.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.33. Among the statements a-d pertaining to division of labour choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Division of labour refers to the division of a large task, contract, or project into smaller tasks – each with a separate schedule within the overall project schedule.

b. Division of labour can be described as people being better off specializing than trying to be jacks of all trades and masters of none.

c. The logic of dividing the workforce into different crafts and professions is the same as that underpinning the case for free trade – everybody benefits from doing those things in which they have a comparative advantage.

d. Specialized capabilities may include equipment or natural resources in addition to skills and training and complex combinations of such assets are often important, as when multiple items of specialized equipment and skilled operators are used to produce a single product.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.34. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pareto efficiency choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pareto efficiency as a situation in which nobody can be made better off without making somebody else worse off.

b. The Pareto frontier is the set of all Pareto efficient allocations, conventionally shown graphically.

c. A production-possibility frontier is an example of a Pareto-efficient frontier.

d. Pareto efficiency is equivalent to a socially desirable distribution of resources.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.35. Among the statements a-d pertaining to monopoly choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Monopoly is a situation when the production of a good or service with no close substitutes is carried out by a single firm with the market power to decide the price of its output.

b. Typically, a monopoly will produce more, at a higher price, than would be the case for the entire market under perfect competition.

c. To maximize profit a monopolist would determine its price by calculating the quantity of output at which its marginal revenue would equal its marginal cost, and then set whatever price would enable it to sell exactly that quantity.

d. In practice, few monopolies are absolute, and their power to set prices or limit supply is constrained by some actual or potential near-competitors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.36. Among the statements a-d pertaining to price discrimination choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Price discrimination is the practice of selling the same product at different prices.

b. If demand curves are different, it is more profitable to set different prices in different markets – the price should be higher in the market with then more elastic demand.

c. In social welfare terms, if price discrimination increases output, it is likely to be beneficial.

d. Selective universities practice price discrimination by providing income-based financial aid.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.37. Among the statements a-d pertaining to barriers to entry choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Barriers to entry is how firms keep out competition – an important source of incumbent advantage.

b. An example of a barrier to entry is where a firm owns a crucial resource, such as an oil well, or where a firm has an exclusive operating licence, for instance, to broadcast on a particular radio wavelength.

c. An example of a barrier to entry is where a big firm with economies of scale has a significant competitive advantage because it can produce a large output at lower costs than can a smaller potential rival.

d. An incumbent firm may make it hard for a would-be entrant by incurring huge sunk costs, spending lots of money on things such as advertising, which any rival must match to compete effectively but which have no value if the attempt to compete should fail.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.38. Among the statements a-d pertaining to economies of scale choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Economies of scale are the cost advantages that enterprises obtain due to size, output, or scale of operation, with cost per unit of output generally decreasing with increasing scale as fixed costs are spread out over more units of output.

b. Often operational efficiency is also greater with increasing scale, leading to lower variable cost as well.

c. Because long run average cost curves in most industries tend to continue to fall, most industries would become monopolies in the absence of government intervention.

d. Large producers are usually efficient at long runs of a product grade (a commodity) and find it costly to switch grades frequently and so may avoid specialty grades even though they have higher margins leaving a niche for smaller (usually older) manufacturing facilities to remain viable by changing from commodity grade production to specialty products.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.39. Among the statements a-d pertaining to human capital choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Human capital can be viewed as tools of the mind, the stuff in people’s heads that makes them productive.

b. Human capital can be increased by investing in education, training, and health care.

c. Human capital is relatively easy to measure and compare, within the same country over time, and between countries.

d. The accumulation of human as well as physical capital (plant and machinery) is a crucial ingredient of economic growth, par­ticularly in the new economy.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.40. Among the statements a-d pertaining to human capital and signaling choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. There is a clear correlation between earnings and degree completion.

b. Degree completion signals factors in addition to human capital accumulation – including the factors associated with admissions.

c. To determine the role of human capital on earnings one should distinguish between the contribution to earnings from increased knowledge and the contribution from the signaling effect of a credential.

d. It has been demonstrated that the contribution of education to earnings is due human capital rather than “sheepskin effects” – the signaling value of the credential.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.41. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term public good choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Public goods have two distinct aspects – nonexcludability and nonrivalrous consumption.

b. Nonexcludability means that the cost of keeping nonpayers from enjoying the benefits of the good or service is prohibitive.

c. An example of nonrivalrous consumption is when non-payers can watch a show without increasing the show’s cost or diminishing everyone else’s enjoyment.

d. Nonrivalrous consumption is usually considered the more important aspect of a public good.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.42. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term common resource choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A common resource is a non-excludable and non-rival good.

b. A common resource is an non-excludable but rival good.

c. No one can be excluded from fishing for tuna, but they are rival – for every tuna caught, there is one less for everyone else.

d. Non-excludable but rival resources often lead to what we call a “tragedy of the commons.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.43. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term free riding choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Free riding is the illegal act of getting the benefit of a good or service without paying for it.

b. There can be a free-rider problem in situations where the number of people willing to pay for the good or service is not enough to cover the cost of providing it.

c. Public goods are often at risk of free riding.

d. The problem of free-riding can be overcome by financing the good by imposing a tax on the entire population.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.44. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term tragedy of the commons choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The tragedy of the commons as an economic theory of a situation within a shared-resource system where individual users acting independently and rationally according to their own self-interest behave contrary to the common good of all users by depleting that resource.

b. The tragedy of the commons is often cited in connection with sustainable development.

c. Although commons have been known to collapse due to overuse many examples exist which prosper without collapse.

d. The tragedy of the commons has also been used in analyzing behaviour in the fields of evolutionary psychology and anthropology.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.45. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term asymmetric information choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Asymmetric information is defined as somebody knowing more than somebody else.

b. Asymmetric information can make it difficult for the two people to do business together.

c. Asymmetric information will lead to propitious selection.

d. Asymmetric information can distort people’s incentives and result in significant inefficiencies.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.46. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term moral hazard choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Moral hazard refers to the idea that when one party has an information advantage, they may have an incentive to exploit the other party.

b. Moral hazard refers to the notion that people with insurance may take greater risks than they would do without it because they know they are protected.

c. A solution to moral hazard is to make information less asymmetric, meaning both parties have similar information.

d. A solution to moral hazard is to reduce the incentive of the agent to exploit their information advantage.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.47. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term signaling choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Signaling is a solution to one of the biggest sources of market failure.

b. An example of signaling is attending a leading university to become more attractive to employers.

c. Signaling is an action that reveals information.

d. Signaling is a solution to asymmetric information.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.48. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term adverse selection choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Adverse selection is one of two main sorts of market failure often associated with insurance – the other being moral hazard.

b. Adverse selection can be a problem when there is asymmetric information between the seller of insurance and the buyer; in particular, insurance will often not be profitable when buyers have better information about their risk of claiming than does the seller.

c. When there is adverse selection, people who know they have a higher risk of claiming than the average of the group will buy the insurance, whereas those who have a below-average risk may decide it is too expensive to be worth buying.

d. Adverse selection is exacerbated when purchase of insurance is compulsory.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.49. Among the statements a-d pertaining to game theory choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Game theory is a technique for analysing how people, firms and governments should behave in strategic situations (in which they must interact with each other), and in deciding what to do must take into account what others are likely to do and how others might respond to what they do.

b. Competition between two firms can be analysed as a game in which firms play to achieve a long-term competitive advantage for example in anticipating in advance what its competitor will do in response to a price increase.

c. In game theory, which can be used to describe anything from wage negotiations to arms races, a dominant strategy is one that will deliver the best results for the player, regardless of what anybody else does.

d. Game theory is based on assumption of utility maximization and therefore not well suited to application within the public sector.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.10.50. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the prisoners’ dilemma choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The prisoners’ dilemma as a favourite example in game theory showing why co-operation is difficult to achieve even when it is mutually beneficial.

b. Two prisoners have been arrested for the same offence and are held in different cells and each has two options (confess, or say nothing) and there are three possible outcomes – 1) one could confess and agree to testify against the other as state witness, receiving a light sentence while his fellow prisoner receives a heavy sentence; 2) they can both say nothing and may be lucky and get light sentences or even be let off, owing to lack of firm evidence; 3) they may both confess and probably get lighter individual sentences than one would have received had he said nothing and the other had testified against him.

c. The second outcome would be the best for both prisoners but the risk is that the other might confess and turn state witness is likely to encourage both to confess, landing both with sentences that they might have avoided had they been able to co-operate in remaining silent.

d. An example of the prisoners’ dilemma is an oligopoly where firms often behave like these prisoners, not setting prices as high as they could do if they only trusted the other firms not to undercut them and as a result, they are worse off.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 11: Thirty Concepts in Quant, Macro, Social, Global, Eval, and Ethics (30 questions)

CCQ206.11.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to variables choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Variables are properties or characteristics of some event, object, or person that remain constant under experimental conditions.

b. An independent variable is manipulated by the experimenter and its effects on the dependent variable are measured.

c. Variables such as number of children in a household are called discrete variables since the possible scores are discrete points on the scale.

d. Qualitative variables are those that express an attribute such as hair color, eye color, religion, favorite movie, or gender, where the values do not imply a numerical ordering.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to distributions choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A frequency distribution is a distribution of empirical data.

b. A probability distribution is a distribution of the probabilities of each possible outcome.

c. A probability distribution as a statistical function that describes all the possible values and likelihoods that a random variable can take within a given range.

d. The binomial distribution and the Pareto distribution can be considered to be special cases of the normal distribution.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to central tendency choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Central tendency as a loosely defined concept that has to do with the location of the center of a distribution.

b. The point at which the distribution is in balance provides a way to define central tendency.

c. The concept of the sum of the absolute deviations (differences) provides a way to define the center of a distribution.

d. The number that minimizes the sum of squared deviations provides a useful definition of central tendency.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to mean and median choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The mean (or arithmetic mean) of a variable is the sum of all its values divided by the number of values.

b. The median is the 50th percentile of a distribution.

c. The mean is typically what is meant by the word average.

d. The median is the best measure of central tendency.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to probability choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Probability is the measure of the likelihood that an event will occur.

b. Probability is one of the least controversial and ambiguous concepts in all of quantitative methods.

c. If there are N symmetrical outcomes, the probability of any given one of them occurring is taken to be 1/N.

d. As the number of tosses of a fair coin increases, the proportion of heads approaches 1/2 meaning that the probability of a head is 1/2.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to sampling bias choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Sampling bias is a bias in which a sample is collected in such a way that some members of the intended population are less likely to be included than others.

b. Random (unbiased) sampling will produce an unbiased sample – one that is representative of the population.

c. Self-selection bias can result when the non-random component occurs after the potential subject has enlisted in the experiment.

d. Survivorship bias occurs when the observations recorded at the end of the investigation are a non-random set of those present at the beginning of the investigation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to normal distributions choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The normal (or Gaussian) distribution as a very common continuous probability distribution often used in the natural and social sciences to represent real-valued random variables whose distributions are not known.

b. Normal distributions are symmetric around their mean.

c. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal.

d. Normal distributions require only three parameters for unambiguous specification – the range, the mean and the standard deviation.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to type I and type II errors choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A type I error is the (false) detection of an effect that is not present.

b. A type II error is the failure to detect an effect that is present.

c. A type I error as the incorrect rejection of a true null hypothesis.

d. A type II error is incorrectly retaining a false null hypothesis.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to simple linear regression choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Simple linear regression is a linear regression model with a single explanatory variable.

b. Simple linear regression concerns two-dimensional sample points with one independent variable and one dependent variable (conventionally, the x and y coordinates in a Cartesian coordinate system) and finds a linear function (a non-vertical straight line) that, as accurately as possible, predicts the dependent variable values as a function of the independent variables.

c. The most commonly-used criterion for the best-fitting regression line is the  line that minimizes the sum of the distances from the data points to the line.

d. The error of prediction for a point is the value of the point minus the predicted value (the value on the regression line).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to power laws, Pareto distributions, and performance, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A power law is a functional relationship between two quantities, where a relative change in one quantity results in a proportional relative change in the other quantity, independent of the initial size of those quantities, that is, one quantity varies as a power of another.

b. A power law curve demonstrates scale invariance, and thus whether looking at the entire population or just the top percentile, the same distribution shape emerges.

c. If the distribution of performance in a particular population actually follows a power law, then an analysis of that population based on assumptions of a normal distribution will overestimate the contribution of the highest performers.

d. One type of power law distribution is the Pareto distribution, sometimes associated with the 80-20 rule whereby 80 percent of an observed phenomenon is produced by 20 percent of the constituent population.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. GDP is the market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country in a year.

b. A finished good is something that is not sold again as part of some other good.

c. A good imported from another country is included in the GDP but a good exported to another country is not.

d. A capital good can be used to make other goods, but it will not be sold again as part of another good, so it is classified as a finished good.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to contributors to growth choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Physical capital, human capital, organization, and technological knowledge contribute to economic growth.

b. Incentives contribute to economic growth.

c. Property rights, political stability, a dependable legal system, honest government, and competitive and open markets contribute to economic growth.

d. Culture, luck, geography, history, and ideas contribute to economic growth.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to innovation and growth choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. While there have always been inventors and innovators, that number exploded after the eighteenth century, contributing to what has been described as the “Hockey Stick of Human Prosperity.”

b. Douglass North argued that the increase in innovation had to do with institutions such as property rights, non-corrupt courts, and rule of law, which lay the foundation for innovation to take place.

c. Few economists attribute the rise in innovation to broader education.

d. Deirdre McCloskey argued that what really kicked innovation into high gear is a change in attitude – ordinary people who once celebrated conquerors and kings began to celebrate merchants and inventors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the rule of 70 choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The rule of 70 is that many important economic indicators double in 70 years.

b. The rule of 70 is that means that a country with a one percent growth rate will double its GDP in 70 years.

c. The rule of 70 is that the doubling time is 70/growth rate.

d. The rule of 70 is a useful rule of thumb for quickly calculating the doubling time for something (e.g., population, GDP, internet nodes) that is growing at a constant rate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to institutions and growth choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A country’s institutions – particularly property rights, honest government, dependable courts, and political stability – strongly influence national economic growth and prosperity.

b. Institutions also include cultural norms, such as the ones surrounding honesty, trust, and cooperation.

c. Institutions define the incentives that affect the lives and behaviours of citizens.

d. Classically trained economists tend to underplay the role of institutions in national growth.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to national wealth choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Real GDP per capita is a commonly used measure of a country’s standard of living.

b. When comparing the wealth of countries it is useful to use currency conversions based on purchasing power parity.

c. When purchasing power parity is used, the average citizen’s command over goods and services in a nominally poor country, the Central African Republic with a GDP per capita of less than US$1000, is at least 20 percent of that in a nominally rich country, Canada.

d. When purchasing power parity is accounted for, standard of living in Mexico is closer to that in Canada than to that in the Central African Republic.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.17. Among the statements a-d pertaining to diversity and equality choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The terms equality and diversity are very often used together, sometimes even interchangeably.

b. Equality refers to fairness, and in particular to universal access (to employment or health care, for instance.

c. Diversity is about recognizing and embracing differences within an institution, workforce or society.

d. As concepts, equality and diversity are somewhat at odds with each other, with one stressing homogeneity (sameness) and the other highlighting heterogeneity (difference).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.18. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Aboriginal peoples choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Aboriginal peoples is a collective name for the original peoples of North America and their descendants.

b. The Canadian constitution recognizes three groups of Aboriginal peoples: Indians (commonly referred to as First Nations), Métis and Inuit.

c. According to the 2011 National Household Survey, just over one million Canadians identified as Métis.

d. The largest numbers of Aboriginal people live in Ontario and the western provinces (Manitoba, Saskatchewan, Alberta, and British Columbia).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.19. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Non-status Indians choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Non-Status Indians are individuals who identify themselves, culturally, as First Nations people (or North American Indians, which is the term used in the census) rather than as Métis or Inuit, but they are not registered under the Indian Act.

b. There have been many processes leading to the creation of the category, Non-status Indians, including the 1869 amendments to the Indian Act that stated that First Nations women who married non-First Nations men would lose their status, and that all of the children from those marriages also would not have Registered Indian status.

c. Bill C-31 amended the Indian Act of Canada in 1985 to allow individuals who had lost legal Indian status in the 1869 amendments to apply to regain status but many individuals have not taken this route, either by choice or because of impediments in the application process.

d. According to the 2011 National Household Survey, just over one million Canadians identified as First Nations people but were not Registered Indians.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.20. Among the statements a-d pertaining to globalization choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The modern phenomenon of globalization has to be carefully distinguished from the mere fact of international connectedness which could arguably be applied to the British empire or the Roman empire in earlier times.

b. The phenomena of internationalization, liberalization, universalization, and westernization have existed much longer than contemporary globalization, and simply redefining these phenomena as globalization does not add anything to our understanding.

c. Contemporary globalization is characterized by the sense that the entire planet is a single social space, that people carry on conversations and movements within that space irrespective of territoriality, that they pay collective attention to global events – that there is a quality of simultaneity.

d. Information and communications technologies, as well as modern transport (air travel and containers), are a crucial foundation of modern globalization. Transportation systems make global supply chains possible, while digital communications means that billions of people on the planet can simultaneously listen to the same song or watch reports on a natural disaster.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.21. Among the statements a-d pertaining to accountability choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Accountability is the obligation to demonstrate and take responsibility for performance in light of commitments and expected outcomes.

b. Accountability includes the acceptance of personal consequences or sanctions for problems that could have been avoided or were not corrected in a timely fashion.

c. Accountability is facilitated by predefining expectations.

d. Accountability is undermined by offering criticism.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.22. Among the statements a-d pertaining to delegation of authority choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Delegation of authority is the process by which a person (i.e., delegator), vested with specific statutory authority, assigns a specific power or function to another.

b. Those who delegate are able to legally divorce themselves from the responsibility and authority with which they are entrusted.

c. Delegation makes it possible for managers to distribute their workload to others and thus be relieved of routine work so they can concentrate on higher functions of management.

d. Delegation can motivate subordinates by encouraging them to give their best at work when they have authority with responsibility.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.23. Among the statements a-d pertaining to abuse of authority choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Abuse of authority is a legal term of art used within the employment context to denote the improper use of position, power or authority to influence the employment or career of another person.

b. Canadian Courts have taken a broad approach to interpreting abuse of authority, holding that improper conduct, omissions, errors, bad faith, personal favoritism and a reasonable apprehension of bias may all, in some cases, give rise to abuse of authority claims under the Public Service Employment Act.

c. Abuse of authority may mean political corruption more generally – that is, the use by government officials of otherwise legitimate legislated powers for private gain.

d. There are two sub-types of the political corruption conception of the abuse of authority: 1) the accumulation and extraction of private gain through the instruments of authority (including embezzlement, plunder and kleptocracy); and 2) activities aimed at the preservation and extension of political power through the use of resources extracted by a government official’s legislated authority (including favoritism and patronage politics, and the politically-motivated distribution of financial and material inducements).

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.24. Among the statements a-d pertaining to due diligence choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Due diligence can be used to denote either a process (systematic research) or a legal requirement (duty of due diligence).

b. As a process, due diligence is used to mean the systematic research and verification of the accuracy of a statement, including in the business context the validation of financial statements.

c. In certain contexts, professionals may be subject to a duty of due diligence, whereby they are required by statute or other authority to act in a manner that demonstrates a degree of prudence. In the workplace health and safety context, for example, a duty of due diligence will often place a requirement on supervisors to have taken reasonable steps to avoid dangerous or risky situations.

d. In Canadian law, there is no defence of due diligence, meaning that one cannot be found not guilty on the basis of taking reasonable precautions to avoid the offence from occurring.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.25. Among the statements a-d pertaining to procedural fairness choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Procedural fairness is a concept in administrative law that governs the way in which administrative decision-makers of the state (such as statutorily-appointed commissions, boards, officers with delegated authority, etc.) must exercise their statutorily-authorized discretionary powers.

b. Procedural fairness is primarily concerned with the way in which a decision is made (viz. the process), while its companion concept of “substantive fairness” is concerned with the reasonability or the correctness of the decision itself.

c. In Canadian law, procedural fairness stems from the two principles of natural justice – the right to be heard, and the right to impartial judgment.

d. There is no such thing as “degrees of procedural fairness” – procedural fairness should be adhered to in the same fashion regardless of the importance of the decision to the individual, expectations of the individual as to the decision-making process to be followed, the nature of the decision-making process and its similarity to judicial proceedings, the role of the decision in the overall statutory scheme, and the decision-maker’s own choice of procedure.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.26. Among the statements a-d pertaining to policy analysis and evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Much of what passes for professional policy analysis is called policy evaluation.

b. The central questions of policy evaluation are: Does this program do what it is supposed to be doing? If not, why not? What should be done?

c. Because the questions of policy evaluation are so fundamental, the political support for policy evaluation is usually strong.

d. Because evaluation is so potentially crucial to the fortunes of a policy or program, opponents and supporters work hard to get the evaluation results they need to strengthen their case.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.27. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the contrasting purposes of evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One purpose of evaluation is program improvement.

b. A second purpose of evaluation is accountability.

c. Evaluations can also be done to generate more general knowledge that may or may not be directly relevant to the program but that might cast light on a social issue or casual questions.

d. It is relatively easy to conduct an evaluation that will simultaneously serve the goals of program improvement and accountability.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.28. Among the statements a-d pertaining to categories of program evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Program evaluation is the application of systematic methods to address questions about program operations and results.

b. Process evaluations and efficiency evaluations are categories of program evaluation.

c. Impact evaluations are not generally considered to be program evaluations.

d. Program evaluation may include ongoing monitoring of a program as well as one-shot studies.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.29. Among the statements a-d pertaining to cost-benefit analysis in evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Cost-benefit analysis evaluates a program in terms of its total costs compared to its total benefits, expressed in monetary terms.

b. The basic steps in cost-benefit analysis are: decide on the accounting unit (whose costs and benefits are to be calculated); catalogue all costs and all benefits over time; monetize (attach a monetary value) to those costs and benefits; discount those costs and benefits over the period of time that the project or program will be operating; and determine the net social benefit.

c. The accounting unit problem is about whose costs and benefits are to be measured –  the individual, the government, or society.

d. Cost–benefit analysis deals with monetary cost, not opportunity cost.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.11.30. Among the statements a-d pertaining to cost-effectiveness analysis in evaluation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Cost-effectiveness analysis compares different program alternatives for achieving a given set of goals.

b. Cost-effective analysis is also applied by considering a fixed budget and choosing alternatives that provide the highest rate of goal achievement.

c. Cost-effectiveness analysis refrains from efforts to monetize benefits and simply takes program goals or outcomes as given, and then assesses different cost strategies for achieving those goals. It assumes that the least-cost strategy is the preferred alternative.

d. Cost-effectiveness analysis assumes that the least-cost strategy is the preferred alternative.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 12: The Study of Leadership and Communication (13 questions)

CCQ206.12.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the autocratic leadership style, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The autocratic leadership style involves authoritarian control over a group.

b. People who abuse an autocratic leadership style are often viewed as bossy, controlling, and dictatorial, which can lead to resentment among group members.

c. Autocratic leadership is a leadership style characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group members.

d. Autocratic leadership should be avoided as it is never an effective leadership style.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Ganz’s pedagogy as practice choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pedagogy as practice takes experiential learning a step farther and requires that teachers practice what they teach in the way they teach it – teaching leadership by practicing leadership.

b. Practice as pedagogy dictates that instructors accept responsibility for enabling others to achieve purpose in the face of uncertainty.

c. Project-focused learning is based on the conviction that if teachers model leadership by enabling students to achieve purpose in the face of the uncertainty of their projects, then students begin to actually learn leadership through their experience of commitment to an organizing project.

d. Scaffolded learning is based on the conviction that learning new skills requires venturing beyond the limits of one’s perceived competence – a step both exciting and frightening, and one that requires motivational, conceptual, and behavioral resources.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Heifetz’s adaptive work choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Adaptive work involves not only the assessment of reality but also the clarification of values.

b. Adaptive work is the work required by an individual or a group to adapt to survive and thrive in a changing world.

c. Adaptive work consists of efforts to close the gap between reality and a host of values.

d. Adaptive work is relatively easy to do.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Kouzes’ and Posner’s leadership model choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The model states that leadership is not about personality; it’s about behavior, an observable set of skills and abilities.

b. The model states that the most effective leaders are those that are able to quickly adapt their style to the situation and recognize cues for required change.

c. The model states that that leaders should establish principles concerning the way people should be treated and the way goals should be pursued.

d. The model emphasizes that leaders should inspire a shared vision and enable others to act.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the laissez-faire leadership style, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Laissez-faire leadership is a type of leadership style in which leaders are hands-off and allow group members to make the decisions.

b. Laissez-faire leadership is useful in situations where group members lack the knowledge or experience they need to complete tasks and make decisions.

c. A leader who demonstrates laissez-faire provides the tools and resources needed.

d. Laissez-faire leadership can be effective in situations where group members are highly skilled, motivated, and capable of working on their own.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the participative leadership style, choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Group members are encouraged to share ideas and opinions, even though the leader retains the final say over decisions.

b. The leader is charged with deciding who is in the group and who gets to contribute to the decisions that are made.

c. Participative leadership can lead to communication failures and uncompleted projects.

d. Participative leadership is most effective in situations where group members are highly skilled, motivated, and capable of working on their own.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Pfeffer’s management BS critique choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Pfeffer argues that corporate-leadership seminars are usually a good investment in producing better leaders.

b. Pfeffer argues that the leadership industry has not been successful partly because its recommendations are based on an ideal world, rather than on the real world.

c. Pfeffer’s book points to the ways in which leadership prescriptions have actually been problematic for leaders and proved themselves to be counterproductive.

d. Pfeffer claims that the general perception of what makes a good leader has resulted in an enormous disconnect between what actually makes individuals successful and what we think makes them successful.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the situational theory of leadership choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The situational theory of leadership suggests that no single leadership style is “best” – the type of leadership and strategies that are best-suited to the task depends on the situation at hand.

b. According to this theory, the most effective leaders are those that are able to adapt their style to the situation and look at cues such as the type of task, the nature of the group, and other factors that might contribute to getting the job done.

c. Effective leaders must base their behaviour on the developmental level of group members for specific tasks, where the developmental level is determined by each individual’s level of competence and commitment

d. An effective leader will match his or her behavior to the developmental skill of each subordinate for the task at hand.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to skills and tacit knowledge choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Skill is the ability to do something that comes from training, experience, or practice.

b. Tacit knowledge is precise and can be described textbooks, procedures and manuals.

c. We know things that we cannot explain; we cannot explain everything we know.

d. Tacit knowledge plays a crucial role in skills acquisition.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the trait theory of leadership choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are invalid.

a. The trait theory of leadership suggests that no single leadership style is “best” – the type of leadership and strategies that are best-suited to the task depends on the situation at hand.

b. The trait theory of leadership is part of Lewin’s 3 leadership theories.

c. The trait theory of leadership suggests that leadership is not about personality; it’s about behavior – an observable set of skills and abilities.

d. The trait theory of leadership focuses on identifying specific characteristics that are linked to successful leadership across a variety of situations.

e. All of a-d are invalid.

CCQ206.12.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to UK Civil Service Leadership Statement 2015 choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Civil Service Leadership Statement was released by the UK Cabinet Office in February 2015 following a year of consultation and is intended to reflect the positive attributes that civil servants want to see in their leaders and their own approach to leadership.

b. The Civil Service Leadership Statement admonishes civil servant leaders to be inspiring, confident, and empowering.

c. The Civil Service Leadership Statement is intended to reflect the positive attributes that civil servants want to see in their leaders and their own approach to leadership.

d. The Statement challenges leaders to hold a mirror up to their own behaviours, to be honest about areas they are falling short in, and to take appropriate action to address them.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Williams’ distinction between real and counterfeit leadership choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Real leadership gets people to face the reality and engage the group to do adaptive work.

b. Counterfeit leadership occurs when group members may not have the necessary knowledge or expertise to make quality contributions to the decision-making process.

c. Counterfeit leadership is indicated by a preoccupation with dominance and an unwillingness to explore beyond one’s comfort zone to find a solution.

d. Real leadership is the willingness to be responsible and involves the pursuit of wisdom.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.12.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to work avoidance mechanisms choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Holding onto past assumptions, blaming authority are examples of work avoidance mechanisms.

b. People fail to adapt because of the distress provoked by the problem and the changes it demands.

c. Work avoidance mechanisms are used by an individual or a group to adapt to survive and thrive in a changing world.

d. Scapegoating and externalizing the enemy are all examples of work avoidance mechanisms.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 13: Recognizing Values and Managing Oneself (13 questions)

CCQ206.13.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the term motivation choose the one that is most valid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Motivation is defined as the process that initiates, guides, and maintains goal-oriented behaviours.

b. The three major components of motivation are activation (the decision to initiate a behaviour), persistence (the continued effort toward a goal even though obstacles may exist), and intensity (the concentration and vigor that goes into pursuing a goal).

c. The instinct theory of motivation suggests that behaviours are motivated by a fixed and inborn pattern of behaviour.

d. The arousal theory of motivation suggests that people are motivated to engage in behaviours that help them maintain their optimal level of arousal such that a person with low arousal needs might pursue relaxing activities while those with high arousal needs might be motivated to engage in exciting, thrill-seeking behaviors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to intrinsic motivation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Intrinsic motivation can be enhanced with extrinsic rewards such as bonuses.

b. Offering external rewards or reinforcements for an already internally rewarding activity can actually make the activity less intrinsically rewarding.

c. People are more creative when they are intrinsically motivated.

d. In work settings, productivity can be increased by using extrinsic rewards such as bonuses, but the actual quality of the work performed is influenced by intrinsic factors.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Haidt’s 6 innate moral foundations choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The sanctity/degradation foundation was shaped by the psychology of disgust and contamination.

b. The loyalty/betrayal foundation is related to our long history as tribal creatures able to form shifting coalitions and underlies virtues of patriotism and self-sacrifice for the group.

c. The care/harm foundation is related to our long evolution as mammals with attachment systems and an ability to feel (and dislike) the pain of others.

d. The liberty/oppression foundation is about the feelings of reactance and resentment people feel toward those who dominate them and restrict their liberty.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to the Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator (MBTI) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator (MBTI) is a self-inventory designed to identify a person’s personality type, strengths, and preferences, and it is currently one of the most widely used psychological instruments in the world.

b. The questionnaire is made up of four scales: extraversion/introversion, sensing/intuition, thinking/feeling, judging/perceiving.

c. Studies have found between 40 and 75 percent of respondents receive a different result after completing the inventory a second time.

d. There are no substantial gender differences in the distribution of MBTI scores.

c. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to activating ambition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Ambition is defined as an ardent desire for an ardent desire for rank, fame, or power; it can also be defined as a desire to achieve a particular end.

b. Ambition is an important contributor to success.

c. Higher ambition leads to a greater need to manage stress, develop resistance, and find balance.

d. Research has demonstrated that gender differences in professional ambition are insignificant.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to becoming self-aware choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Anthony Tjan, writing in the HBR, says that his research finds that self-awareness the “one quality that trumps all, evident in virtually every great entrepreneur, manager, and leaders” and advises that the “best thing leaders can do to improve their effectiveness is to become more aware of what motivates them and their decision-making.”

b. Personal control – spending your time and resources by focusing on events you have control over – is essential for becoming self-aware.

c. Self-awareness is about understanding your own needs, desires, failings, habits, and everything else that makes you tick.

d. Being self-aware allows you to understand other people, how they perceive you, your attitude and your responses to them in the moment.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to developing resilience choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Resilience is the ability to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change and developing resilience is important for effective self management.

b. Indicators of resilience include following through on commitments and making promises that can be kept.

c. Resilient people view a difficulty as a challenge, not as a paralyzing event, and they look at their failures and mistakes as lessons to be learned from, and as opportunities for growth.

d. Resilient people have a positive image of the future – they maintain a positive outlook, and envision brighter days ahead.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to finding balance choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A proper work-life balance can be defined as a state of well-being that a person can reach or can set as a goal in order to allow them to manage effectively multiple responsibilities at work.

b. A tip for staying balanced at work is at the end of each day, set your priorities for the following day.

c. An tip for finding balanced at home is exercising, even if it’s only for 15 minutes.

d. A tip for staying balanced at work is to respond to emails when they arrive rather than letting them accumulate throughout the day.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to having fun at work choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Actions to promote having fun at the workplace need to be endorsed at the corporate level.

b. We get an emotional reward from interacting harmoniously with others.

c. One goal in managing oneself is to find professional assignments and colleagues where one can have fun at work.

d. Working with interesting colleagues and working on intellectually challenging problems activate the “happiness hormones” in your brain.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to managing stress choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Hans Selye, one of the founding fathers of stress research, described stress as not necessarily something bad – the stress of exhilarating, creative successful work is beneficial, while that of failure, humiliation or infection is detrimental.

b. An important goal in managing oneself is maintain work-related stress to levels that do not jeopardize one’s health and effectiveness.

c. Tips for reducing stress include physical activity, relaxation techniques, and getting more sleep.

d. Tips for reducing stress include taking control, learning to say no, and managing your time.

e. All of a-d are invalid.

CCQ206.13.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to managing time choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One method of counteracting priority dilution involves having a strategy in place for saying no in advance.

b. Time management, or prioritization, is the way that one organizes and plans how long to spend on specific activities.

c. A tip for effective time-management is to ask yourself, “How can I use my time today in ways that create more time tomorrow?”

d. A tip for effective time-management is to speed up the implementation of all tasks.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.12. Among the tips a-d pertaining to overcoming procrastination choose the one that appears implausible or choose e if all are reasonably plausible.

a. Start easy – The first tip is simply to start with whatever is easy, manageable and doesn’t fill your mind with a nameless dread.

b. Start anywhere – The trouble with ‘starting easy’ is that it can be difficult to know where to start: there might be several easy bits, or it might be difficult to tell what should be done and what shouldn’t.

c. Think concrete – When you are getting started on a task, it’s much better to think about the concrete steps you are going to take, rather than abstract aims and ideas. Thinking concrete helps you get started.

d. Think it through – It is important to be sure that the task will succeed before starting.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.13.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to taking responsibility choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Taking responsibility involves accepting personal accountability for one’s actions and commitments.

b. It is crucial to distinguish between which aspect of your life are the responsibility of others and which parts are totally your own responsibility.

c. Indicators of taking responsibility are: following through on commitments and only making promises that can be kept.

d. A foundation principle for success and happiness in life and work is that “you are totally responsible for your life.”

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 14: Diagnosing and Strategizing (16 questions)

CCQ206.14.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to determining the nature of the leadership challenge choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. In the activist challenge, the group or a faction of the group refuses to face some element of reality that actually might improve the people’s quality of life or institutional performance.

b. In the development challenge, the group can make significant improvements to its quality of life or organizational performance if latent abilities become effective.

c. In the activist challenge, the group or a faction of the group refuses to face some element of reality that actually might improve the people’s quality of life or institutional performance.

d.  In the crisis challenge, the group faces a potentially explosive situation that could threaten the life of the group or some aspect of the prevailing order.

e. All of a-d are valid.

CCQ206.14.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to determining who is us choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A story of us expresses the values, the experiences, share by the us we are evoking at the time.

b. A story of us helps by identifying the internal and external factors that are favourable and unfavourable to achieve that objective.

c. A story of us can also distinguish our community from another, reducing uncertainty about what to expect from those with whom we interact.

d. The collectivity is everyone in a particular company, or a particular political jurisdiction.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to engaging the issue (getting on the dance floor) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Ron Heifetz and Marty Linsky use the image of a dance floor and a balcony to describe different perspectives.

b. Students typically have spent many years studying matters from a detached perspective and now have to learn how to get off the balcony and onto the dance floor.

c. Once one becomes engaged in a problem that involves other people and institutions new ideas, perspectives, and potential solutions emerge that are much less likely to occur to the detached observer.

d. Once you have engaged the issue on the dance floor, you should remain there until the issue is resolved.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to framing the problem choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The first step is to describe the problem and name the interested parties, or stakeholders.

b. Describing the problem involves recognizing problematic conditions, identifying the problem that those conditions create, and specifying individuals as well as collectives that have a stake in the problem or its solution.

c. When a problem has been identified, it is not yet a policy matter until its issues for policy are specified, where issues refer to stake­holders’ concerns, political disagreements, and value conflicts.

d. The next step is to propose a solution, typically one that relies on policy instruments that government can use.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats (SWOT) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. A SWOT analysis can be carried out for a product, place, industry, or person and involves specifying the objective of the venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favourable and unfavourable to achieve that objective..

b. A realistic recognition of the weaknesses and threats that exist for your effort is the first step to countering them with a robust set of strategies that build upon strengths and opportunities.

c. SWOT usually reflects your current position or situation and a drawback is that it might not encourage openness to new possibilities.

d. Although SWOT was a popular technique in the late 20th century but is rarely used today.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to taking a detached perspective (from the balcony) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. The biggest challenge to taking a detached perspective is seeing yourself objectively.

b. Sustaining good leadership requires the capacity to see what is happening to you and your initiative as it is happening.

c. It is possible to learn to be both an observer and a participant at the same time, through techniques such as watching people’s body language.

d. Ron Heifetz and Marty Linsky use the image of “getting off the balcony and going to the dance floor” for taking a detached perspective.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to vision statement choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An organization’s vision statement describes what the group is going to do, and why it’s going to do that.

b. Your vision communicates what your organization believes are the ideal conditions for your community.

c. Vision statements are brief proclamations that convey the community’s dreams for the future.

d. Vision statements should be understood and shared by members of the community.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to mission statement choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Mission statements are similar to vision statements, but they are more concrete and more action-oriented.

b. Mission statements provide substantial detail of how an organization might go about fixing their problems.

c. An organization’s mission statement describes what the group is going to do, and why it’s going to do that.

d. Some general guiding principles about mission statements are that they are concise, outcome-oriented, inclusive.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to objectives choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Objectives refer to specific measurable results for the initiative’s broad goals.

b. An organization’s objectives describe in precise detail how strategies will be implemented.

c. There are three basic types of objectives: behavioural objectives, community-level outcome objectives, and process objectives.

d. An organization’s objectives generally lay out how much of what will be accomplished by when.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to strategies choose the one that is most valid or choose e if none are reasonably valid.

a. Strategies explain how the initiative will reach its objectives.

b. Strategies refer to specific measurable results for the initiative’s broad goals.

c. An organization’s strategies generally lay out how much of what will be accomplished by when.

d. An example of a strategy is: By the year 2006, increase by 30% the percentage of families that own their home.

e. None of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to action plan choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. An organization’s action plan describes in great detail exactly how strategies will be implemented to accomplish the objectives developed earlier in this process.

b. The key aspects of the intervention or changes to be sought are outlined in the action plan.

c. The action plan refers to specific changes to be sought and the specific steps necessary to bring about changes.

d. Generally, organizations will have a wide variety of action plans that apply to people from the different parts, or sectors, of the organization and community.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.12. Among the statements a-d pertaining to developing mission and vision statements choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. It often takes several drafts of vision statements to fully capture the dreams of those involved in the effort.

b. The process of writing a mission statement is much like that for developing your vision statements, and the same brainstorming process can help you develop possibilities for the mission statement.

c. Learn what is important to people in the community by conducting public forums or listening sessions.

d. Developing effective vision and mission statements are two of the most important tasks an organization will ever do.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.13. Among the statements a-d pertaining to creating SMART objectives choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. You can collect your own baseline data for the information related to your specific issues and ways to gather this information include the use of surveys, questionnaires, and personal interviews.

b. Changes in behavior, outcome, and process must be able to be tracked and measured in such a way to show that a change has occurred.

c. SMART objectives should be aspirational because their main role is to inspire greater commitment and effort.

d. Your organization will need to take a good look at its resources, as well as talk to experts who have a sense of what is not only possible, but likely.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.14. Among the statements a-d pertaining to developing successful strategies choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Organize a brainstorming meeting and remember that people will work best in a relaxed and welcoming environment.

b. A strategy should point out the overall path without dictating a particular narrow approach.

c. A good strategy takes advantage of current resources and assets, such as people’s willingness to act or a tradition of self-help and community pride.

d. Check the alignment of your strategy with the mission and vision, and adjust the mission and vision accordingly.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.15. Among the statements a-d pertaining to developing an action plan choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Develop an action plan composed of action steps that address all the proposed changes with a plan that is complete, clear, and current.

b. While the plan might address general goals you want to see accomplished, the action steps will help you determine the specific actions you will take to help make your vision a reality.

c. While developing an action plan, you may realize that you need to go back and refine your mission, vision, and strategy so they fit with the action plan.

d. Keep everyone informed about what’s going on and communicate to everyone involved how his or her input was incorporated.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.14.16. Among the statements a-d pertaining to countering opposition choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. One of the best ways to prevent opposition is to plan in advance what you’re going to do, and convince potential opponents to either join you, or at least to not actively oppose you.

b. Convey the issue in terms of how your group thinks about it; you don’t want to be constantly on the defensive, only responding to your opponent’s arguments.

c. In most cases, when you settle your dispute with your opponent, there will be a compromise. Your group should be aware of signs that might indicate such a negotiation is possible.

d. You should respond to your opponents counterattacks with a variety of strategies, including deflecting the issue and discrediting your opponent.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Quiz for Week 15: Negotiating and Handling Complexity

CCQ206.15.01. Among the statements a-d pertaining to action-forcing mechanisms choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Action-forcing mechanisms are external events or stipulations created in the course of negotiation or mediation that are designed to force parties to take steps toward reaching or implementing an agreement.

b. Action-forcing events are clear breakpoints that force some or all of the participants to make hard choices or incur substantial costs.

c. Deadlines are classic examples of action-forcing mechanisms, and are the most common way to manipulate time in order to induce a settlement.

d. Deadlines rarely lead parties to alter their goals.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.02. Among the statements a-d pertaining to advice for women negotiators choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. There are no substantial differences in the way men and women approach compensation determination.

b. Women who are more active in negotiating their compensation tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than those who are more passive, but an active approach can produce a backlash.

c. When women negotiate issues that challenge people’s deeply seated beliefs about gender, their supervisors may respond with moves that question their credibility and competence.

d. Collaborative techniques can be employed to minimize the effect of the backlash.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.03. Among the statements a-d pertaining to dealing with difficult people choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. When someone is being difficult, take yourself mentally to a place where you can look down objectively on the dispute and plan your response.

b. Dealing with difficult people requires coming to like them and even agreeing with much of what they claim.

c. Use your power and influence to help educate your opponent about the situation.

d. Discuss acceptable norms of behavior with a potentially difficult counterpart before you negotiate.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.04. Among the statements a-d pertaining to best alternative negotiated agreement (BATNA) choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Your BATNA is the best one can do if the other person refuses to come to an agreement.

b. Your BATNA is not necessarily your ideal outcome but it is the best you can do without the other person.

c. If the only available agreement is better than your BATNA, then you should accept the proposed agreement.

d. Your BATNA should always be revealed to your opponent because it will strengthen your argument.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.05. Among the statements a-d pertaining to Fisher and Ury’s Four principles of negotiation choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Separate the process of inventing options from the act of judging them.

b. Focus on positions, not interests.

c. When the other party stubbornly refuses to be reasonable, shift the discussion from a search for substantive criteria to a search for procedural criteria.

d. When a problem is defined in terms of the parties’ underlying interests it is often possible to find a solution which satisfies both parties’ interests.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.06. Among the statements a-d pertaining to complexity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Scholars have reached a reasonable consensus on a non-complex definition of complexity.

b. A complex system is greater than the sum of its parts; those parts are interdependent – elements interact with each other, share information and combine to produce systemic behaviour.

c. Some attempts to influence complex systems are dampened (negative feedback) while others are amplified (positive feedback) which means that small actions can have large effects and large actions can have small effects.

d. Complex systems are particularly sensitive to initial conditions that produce a long-term momentum or path dependence.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.07. Among the statements a-d pertaining to dealing with ambiguity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Treating ambiguity as a steady state, and making decisions in this state is an appropriate position for managers.

b. Ambiguity can be reduced by clear decisions, by team goals, and by performance feedback.

c. Managing ambiguity typically requires working to reduce ambiguity and finding ways to become productive even when uncertainty is unavoidable.

d. One can never get rid of ambiguity but a good manager should try to reduce it.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.08. Among the statements a-d pertaining to dealing with uncertainty choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Any leader facing high levels of uncertainty needs to do get comfortable with the idea of not having all the answers and take steps to reduce uncertainty.

b. Making a decision even if it’s deemed imperfect later has the benefit of reducing uncertainty for the rest of your company or team.

c. Searching for more information will always reduce uncertainty and ambiguity.

d. Handling uncertainty – something that is doubtful or unknown – is a persistent challenge in management.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.09. Among the statements a-d pertaining to determining sources of complexity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Imposed complexity comes from laws, industry regulations, and interventions by nongovernmental organizations and it is not typically manageable by organizations.

b. Inherent complexity is intrinsic to the line of business, and can only be jettisoned by exiting a portion of the line of business.

c. Designed complexity comes from choices about where the organization operates, what it provides, to whom, and how, and although organizations can remove it, it would likely mean simplifying valuable wrinkles in their business model.

d. Unnecessary complexity arises from growing misalignment between the needs of the organization and the processes supporting it and this can be easily managed once identified.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.10. Among the statements a-d pertaining to practicing integrative thinking choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Integrative thinking assumes that each decision will affect the others and suggests considering all aspects at once.

b. After having explored the range of possible criteria, the integrative thinker determines whether they are causes or effects of one another.

c. Integrative Thinking is based on iterations, forcing one to go back to re-evaluate criteria or their causal arrangement.

d. Integrative thinking simplifies each preceding step to rapidly reach a clear, unequivocal decision that can be evaluated based on defined initial criteria.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

CCQ206.15.11. Among the statements a-d pertaining to recognizing obliquity choose the one that is invalid or choose e if all are reasonably valid.

a. Obliquity recognizes that what happens happens because someone intended it.

b. Obliquity recognizes that systems are complex and depend on unpredictable reactions.

c. Obliquity recognizes that we learn about the nature of the objectives and the means of achieving them during a process of experiment and discovery.

d. Obliquity is the idea that complex goals are often best pursued indirectly.

e. All of a-d are reasonably valid.

Page created by: Ian Clark, last updated 18 June 2017.

Image: Doug Savage (copyright 2009), SavageChickens.com, from LearnDash, Why Multiple-Choice Only Quizzes Suck, at https://www.learndash.com/why-multiple-choice-only-quizzes-suck/, accessed 17 April 2017.